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ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT LẦN I NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
M«n: TiÕng Anh 11
Thêi gian lµm bµi: 90 phót
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. crooked B. wicked C. naked D. cooked
2. A. endure B. feature C. procedure D. measure
3. A. champion B. moustache C. machinery D. champagne
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
4. A. protect B. prolong C. process D. provide
5. A. guarantee B. circumstance C. discipline D. primary
6. A. possibility B. disappointed C. manufacture D. petroleum
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
7. While_________ to help him with his essay, I got impatient because he wouldn’t pay attention to what I was saying.
A. I am trying B. trying C. having tried D. I try
8. I don’t think we have very much _______, we are very different people.
A. together B. in common C. the same D. similar
9. You haven’t heard all the facts so don’t _______ to conclusion.
A. dash B. jump C. spring D. fly
10. Are you _______ the mood _______ a walk on the beach?
A. on/of B. on/for C. in/of D. in/for
11. She _______ her neighbor’s children for the broken window.
A. accused B. complained C. denied D. blamed
12. The decimal numeral system is one of the _______ ways of expressing number.
A. most world’s useful B. useful world’s most
C. world’s most useful D. useful most world’s
13. In spite of her abilities, Laura has been _______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repetition B. repetitive C. repeatedly D. repeat
14. _______ gene in the human genome to be thoroughly understood, many human diseases could be cured or prevented.
A. Each B. Since C. Were each D. If each
15. People are advised to _______ smoking because of its harm to their health.
A. cut down B. cut down on C. cut off D. cut in
16. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
17. Harry’s new jacket doesn’t seem to fit him very well. He _______ it on before he bought it.
A. must have tried B. should have tried C. needn’t have tried D. might have tried
18. He set one alarm – clock for five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _______ that he did not oversleep.
A. assure B. insure C. ensure D. reassure
19. She has two sons, _______.
A. none of them work near her house. B. none of whom work near her house.
C. neither of whom works near her house. D. neither of them works near her house.
20. By the time the boss comes back from England, the work _______.
A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing
C. will have been finished D. will be finished
21. They go to the seaside _______ they should be disturbed by the noise of city.
A. in order that B. so that C. for D. lest
22. “Do you remember John Williams?” - “No, I don’t. But the name _______.”
A. holds water B. cleans the air C. calls the shots D. rings the bell
23. I don’t suppose you like pineapple, _______?
A. do I B. do you C. don’t I D. don’t you
24. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take them _______.
A. as a rule B. for granted C. out of habit D. as usual
25. It’s a pity we didn’t visit Tom when we had the chance. I _______ him before he left the country.
A. would like to see B. should like to see
C. would like having seen D. would like to have seen
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
26. Turner: “Do you find it interesting to go to the cinema on your own?” – Mary: “_______.”
A. What a pity! B. No, not at all C. Never mind D. You’re welcome
27. Two friends are going to watch the football match between Liverpool and Arsenal.
Nam: “Do you think Liverpool will win?” - Viet: “_______. They will never beat Arsenal.”
A. Fat chance! B. Good bargain! C. Hard luck! D. That’s torn it!
28. Hanh: “It’s very generous of you to offer to pay!” Quan: “_______.”
A. I’m glad you like it B. Thanks a million
C. That was the least I could do D. You can say that again
29. Peter: “I’m having some friends over for dinner this evening. Would you like to join us?”
A. Thanks, but I mustn’t. B. Come on. It’s your turn.
C. Can I take a rain check? D. As a matter of fact, I do.
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
30. In about one-third of all cases of hepatitis B, it is unknown how the patient contracted the virus.
A. became smaller B. spread C. got rid of D. became infected with
31. Hundreds of young people who work in the tourist trade face redundancy at the end of the summer.
A. unemployment B. excess C. surplus D. starvation
32. The student apologized to his teacher for submitting the essay late.
A. dropping out of B. handing in C. bring in D. carrying out
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
33. We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A. revealed B. frequented C. accessible D. lively
34. It is relatively easy to identify the symptoms of the peculiar disease.
A. comparatively B. obviously C. absolutely D. evidently
35. She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.
A. nervous B. comfortable C. depressed D. relaxing
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
36. By the time of the dinosaurs, turtles have already developed the hard shell into which their heads and legs could be drawn.
A. time B. have C. into which D. drawn
37. She had the gardener to plant some trees in the front garden.
A. had B. the gardener C. to plant D. in the front garden
38. During first ten years if the Space Age, which began in 1957, more than 500 artificial satellites were rocketet into orbit around the earth.
A. into orbit B. During first C. which began D. more than
39. The people in Europe are now using the common unit of money called Euro, although the economies in those countries are not exact the same.
A. are now using B. called C. although D. exact
40. Some methods to prevent soil erosion are plowing parallel with the slopes of hills, to plant trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops.
A. Some B. to prevent C. are D. to plant
VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
MONEY IN SPORT
Today, the distinction between the professional and the (41)_______ is purely a matter of sporting success. Most athletes start their career by winning competitions for non - professionals before deciding to (42)_______ themselves to their chosen sport. However, for a long time, it used to be believed that getting paid for a sporting (43)_______ destroyed the ancient Olympic (44)_______ of people simply trying to do their best for the love of the sport.
In fact, even participants in ancient Olympic (45)_______ were able to make large amounts of money from winning. At the games themselves, only a laurel wreath was (46)_______ to the winner, but back in his (47)_______ town, he could become very rich.
During most of the 20th century, professionals were disallowed from entering the Olympics. This gave the wealthy an advantage since they could afford to train and compete without needing to earn money. In 1988, the IOC (which (48) _______ for International Olympic Committee) decided to allow professionals to take (49)_______ in the Olympics. Only boxing and football still restrict the (50)_______ of professionals allowed to compete. Boxing does not allow professionals at all, while Olympic football teams are allowed up to three professionals on the side.
41. A. champion B. umpire C. amateur D. volunteer
42. A. concentrate B. focus C. devote D. aim
43. A. action B. performance C. activity D. recreation
44. A. suggestion B. thought C. belief D. ideal
45. A. sessions B. acts C. plays D. events
46. A. awarded B. earned C. gained D. rewarded
47. A. birth B. native C. original D. home
48. A. stands B. takes C. means D. goes
49. A. place B. account C. part D. sides
50. A. amount B. number C. degree D. quantity
IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be adapted. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, even affect organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
51. The word “it” refers to _______.
A. a species B. 99 percent C. extinction D. environment
52. The word “ultimately” is closest meaning to _______.
A. exceptionally B. eventually C. unfortunately D. dramatically
53. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
C. They are no longer in existence.
D. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
54. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Temperature changes B. Introduction of new species
C. Competition among species D. Availability of food resources
55. The word “demise” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. recovery B. change C. death D. help
56. Why is “plankton” mentioned?
A. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean
B. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.
C. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.
D. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
57. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that _______.
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history
B. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history
C. extinctions on Earth have generally been massive
D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed
58. The word “finding” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. research method B. ongoing experiment
C. scientific discovery D. published information
59. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
B. evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
C. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
D. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
60. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A. It may depend on chance events.
B. It reflects the interrelationship of many species.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
X. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
61. Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2?
A. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language.
B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.
C. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a single language.
D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak.
62. According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them?
A. They can remember them easily.
B. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word.
C. They enjoy the sound.
D. They understand the rhythm.
63. The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their speech when talking to babies EXCEPT _______.
A. speaking with shorter sentences B. giving all words equal emphasis
C. using meaningless sounds D. speaking more loudly than normal
64. The word "diverse" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. different B. surrounding C. stimulating D. divided
65. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. words B. mothers C. investigators D. babies
66. Why does the author mention "a bell and a rattle"?
A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds
B. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like
C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds
D. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry
67. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
B. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development
C. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
D. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds
68. The word "emphasize" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stress B. leave out C. explain D. repeat
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69. What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language?
A. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
B. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
C. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
D. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
70. The word "noted" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. requested B. observed C. theorized D. disagreed
XI. Sentence transformation: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
71. That smoking has a bad effect on our health has been proved.
A. That smoking, which has a bad effect on our health, has been proved
B. It has been proved that smoking is harmful to our health.
C. Smoking badly affects our health is true.
D. That bad effect of smoking on our health has been proved.
72. Linda seems to have very little regard for other people's feelings.
A. Linda doesn't respect people who feel sorry for themselves.
B. Linda has difficulty expressing her feelings for other people.
C. Linda has very few feelings like other people's.
D. Linda appears unconcerned about other people's feelings.
73. "If you don't apologise immediately, I'm leaving," she told him.
A. She told him not to apologise immediately.
B. She asked him to apologise immediately because she was leaving.
C. She threatened to leave unless he apologised immediately.