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ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi gồm 03 trang)
SECTION 1. LISTENING (approximately 8 minutes)
PART 1. QUESTIONS 01-04. You will hear four short conversations. You will hear each conversation twice. There is one question for each conversation. For questions 01-04, choose A, B, or C for the right answer.
01. What was the weather like on Wednesday?
02. How much did Mark’s pullover cost?
03. What did Raquel buy today?
04. How many students are there at the college?
PART 2. QUESTIONS 05-08. You will hear Kate and Jeremy talking about a party. Listen and complete questions 05-08. You will hear the conversation twice. For questions 05-08, write no more than TWO WORDS for each of your answers.
Kate’s Birthday Party
Day: 05. _______________________ Time: 8.30
Place: 06. _____________________ Address: 07. ___________________
Bring some: 08. ______________
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SỞ GD&ĐT ………………..
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨCĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi gồm 03 trang)
SECTION 1. LISTENING (approximately 8 minutes)
PART 1. QUESTIONS 01-04. You will hear four short conversations. You will hear each conversation twice. There is one question for each conversation. For questions 01-04, choose A, B, or C for the right answer.
01. What was the weather like on Wednesday?
A B C
02. How much did Mark’s pullover cost?
A B C
03. What did Raquel buy today?
A B C
04. How many students are there at the college?
A B C
PART 2. QUESTIONS 05-08. You will hear Kate and Jeremy talking about a party. Listen and complete questions 05-08. You will hear the conversation twice. For questions 05-08, write no more than TWO WORDS for each of your answers.
Kate’s Birthday Party
Day: 05. _______________________ Time: 8.30
Place: 06. _____________________ Address: 07. ___________________
Bring some: 08. ______________
SECTION 2. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
09. A. trashed B. talked C. reached D. loved
10. A. balance B. challenge C. career D. happy
II. Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the other words.
11. A. ailment B. disease C. poultry D. nervous
12. A. digestive B. intestine C. condition D. evidence
III. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D the one showing the underlined part that needs correcting.
13. James should seriously consider to become a singer. She’s a great talent.
A. should B. to become C. a D. talent
14. She studied hard for the final test, but she passed with flying colours.
A. hard B. but C. passed D. with
IV. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following sentences.
15. More and more investors are pouring_________ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. the B. a C. an D. 0 (zero article)
16. His choice of future career is quite similar_________ mine.
A. for B. to C. with D. at
17. She's not only beautiful_________ intelligent.
A. but also B. but C. however D. yet
18. Give me_________ examples, please!
A. a few B. a little C. few D. little
19. The_________ cheered loudly when the singers came out on the stage.
A. audience B. spectator C. public D. watcher
20. That the young talented pianist won the Pulitzer Prizes has attracted_________ attention.
A. worldwide B. scientific C. undue D. careful
21. John made me_________ a lot with his hilarious jokes.
A. laughing B. to laugh C. laugh D. laughed
22. Janet and Linda are talking about the weekend.
– Janet: “Why don’t you go shopping with me this Sunday?”
– Linda: “______________________”
A. OK. I’ll call you soon. B. It's none of your business.
C. Sorry, I have to work overtime. D. Not bad.
SECTION 3. READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Orbis is an organisation which helps blind people of everywhere. It has built an eye hospital inside an aeroplane and flown it all over the world with an international medical team. Samantha Graham, a fourteen-year-old schoolgirl from England, went with the plane to Mongolia. Samantha tells the story of the Eukhtuul, a young Mongolian girl.
‘Last year, when Eukhtuul was walking home from school, she was attacked by boys with sticks and her eyes were badly damaged. Dr. Duffey, an Orbis doctor, said that without an operation she would never see again. I thought about all the things I do that she couldn’t, things like reading schoolbooks, watching television, seeing friends, and I realised how lucky I am.’
‘The Orbis team agreed to operate on Eukhtuul and I was allowed to watch, together with some Mongolian medical students. I prayed the operation would be successful. The next day I waited nervously with Eukhtuul while Dr. Duffey removed her bandages. “In six months your sight will be back to normal,” he said. Eukhtuul smiled, her mother cried, and I had to wipe away some tears, too!’
Now Eukhtuul wants to study hard to become a doctor. Her whole future has changed thanks to a simple operation. We should all think more about how much our sight means to us.’
23. What information can be learned from this passage?
A. the best way of studying medicine B. the international work of some eye doctors
C. the difficulties for blind travellers D. the life of schoolchildren in Mongolia
24. After meeting Eukhtuul, Samantha felt__________.
A. angry about Eukhtuul’s experience B. grateful for her own sight
C. proud of the doctor’s skill D. surprise by Eukhtuul’s ability
25. The word “operation” can be best replaced by__________.
A. surgery B. meditation C. medical D. health
26. What is the result of Eukhtuul's operation?
A. After some time she will see as well as before.
B. Before she recovers, she needs another operation.
C. She can see better but can never have normal eyes.
D. She can't see perfectly again.
27. What is the writer's main purpose in writing this passage?
A. to describe a dangerous trip B. to explain how sight can be lost
C. to report a patient's cure D. to warn against playing with sticks
II. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Rock began in the USA in the early 1950s. At that time 'rhythm and blues’ music was very (28)_________ with black Americans. ‘R&B’ was a mixture (29)_________ black religious music and jazz. It had strong rhythms that you could dance to and simple, fast music.
(30)_________ the success of R&B music, white musicians started to copy the same style. By the mid 1950s, this new while R&B music, called 'rock ‘n’ roll’ had become very popular. Singers (31)_________ Elvis Presley and Bill Haley attracted millions of teenage fans. Their music was fast and loud. Many older people thought that rock ‘n’ roll was very (32)_________.
28. A. accepted B. popular C. common D. famous
29. A. to B. with C. of D. by
30. A. Noticing B. Detecting C. Warning D. Perceiving
31. A. as B. like C. be D. in
32. A. dangerous B. endangered C. dangerously D. in danger
SECTION 4. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence as similar in meaning as the first one beginning with the words given.
33. She started learning French two years ago.
→ She's _____________________________________________________________.
34. Although the weather was bad, she went to school on time.
→ Despite ___________________________________________________________.
35. They keep this room tidy all the time.
→ This room ________________________________________________________.
36. “I’ll wait for you. I promise,” he said to me.
→ He promised _____________________________________________________.
II. Write a short paragraph (80-100 words) to offer your solutions to the present environmental problems. (You should follow the cues)
- The land pollution and your solutions.
- The water pollution and your solutions.
- The air pollution and your solutions.
- Other pollutions and your solutions.
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Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………….………..…….…….….….; Số báo danh……………………
SỞ GD&ĐT …………………
(Đáp án gồm 01 trang)KỲ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
HDC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10
SECTION 1. LISTENING (2.0 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item): 01. B 02. A 03. C 04. C
II. (0.25 point per one correct item):
05. FRIDAY 06. LONDON HOTEL
07. SHINDY 08. A PENCIL/ PENCILS
SECTION 2. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (3.5 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item): 09. D 10. C
II. (0.25 point per one correct item): 11. B 12. D
III. (0.25 point per one correct item): 13. B 14. B
IV. (0.22 point per one correct item): 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. A
19. A 20. A 21. C 22. C
SECTION 3. READING (2.5 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item): 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. C
II. (0.25 point per one correct item): 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. A
SECTION 4. WRITING (2.0 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct sentence):
33. She’s learnt/ has been learning French for two years.
34. Despite the bad weather, she went to school on time.
35. This room is kept tidy all the time.
36. He promised to wait for me.
II. Write a short paragraph (80-100 words) to offer your solutions to the present environmental problems. (1.0 point)
PhầnMô tả tiêu chí đánh giáĐiểm tối đaBố cục (0.3 point) o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc
o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
o Câu kết luận phù hợp0.1 point
0.1 points
0.1 pointNội dung (0.4 point)o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic, đủ thuyết phục người đọc
o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận
o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5% 0.1 points
0.1 points
0.2 pointSử dụng ngôn ngữ
(0.3 point)o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung, văn phong/ thể loại
o Sử dụng ngôn từ phong phú, ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả chính xác0.2 point
0.1 point
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