Đề luyện thi THPTQG năm 2020 môn Tiếng Anh - trường THPT Mỹ Đức A (có đáp án)

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 1/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

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ĐỀ SỐ 01

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of

the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. interviewer B. variety C. simplicity D. triangular

Question 2: A. material B. survival C. pyramid D. official

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three

in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. iron B. restaurant C. parents D. celebrate

Question 4: A. compose B. wholesale C. opponent D. colony

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the

following questions

Question 5: Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness.

A B C D

Question 6: Many people are afraid that in the future there will be no space leaving for human beings and

A B C

they express the idea of robots replacing human beings.

D

Question 7: The book offers a fascinated sight of the lives of the rich and famous.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of

the questions, from 8 to 15

Fossils are the remains and traces (such as footprints or other marks) of ancient plant and animal life that

are more than 10,000 years old. They range in size from microscopic structures to dinosaur skeletons and

complete bodies of enormous animals. Skeletons of extinct species of human are also considered fossils. An

environment favorable to the growth and later preservation of organisms is required for the occurrence of

fossils. Two conditions are almost always present: The possession of hard parts, either internal or external,

such as bones, teeth, scales, shells, and wood; these parts remain after the rest of the organism has decayed.

Organisms that lack hard parts, such as worms and jelly fish, have left a meager geologic record. Quick

burial of the dead organism, so that protection is afforded against weathering, bacterial action, and

scavengers.

Nature provides many situations in which the remains of animals and plants are protected against

destruction. Of these, marine sediment is by far the most important environment for the preservation of

fossils, owing to the incredible richness of marine life. The beds of former lakes are also prolific sources of

fossils. The rapidly accumulating sediments in the channels, floodplains, and deltas of streams bury fresh-

water organisms, along with land plants and animals that fall into the water.

The beautifully preserved fossil fish from the Green River soil shale of Wyoming in the western United

States lived in a vast shallow lake. The frigid ground in the far north acts as a remarkable preservative for

animal fossils. The woolly mammoth, along-haired rhinoceros, and other mammals have been periodically

exposed in the tundra of Siberia, the hair and red flesh still frozen in cold storage.

Volcanoes often provide environments favorable to fossil preservation. Extensive falls of volcanic ash

and coarser particles overwhelm and bury all forms of life, from

flying insects to great trees.

Caves have preserved the bones of many animals that died in them and were subsequently buried under a

blanket of clay or a cover of dripstone. Predatory animals and early humans alike sought shelter in caves and

brought food to them to the eater, leaving bones that paleontologists have discovered.

Question 8: The passage primarily discusses which of the following?

A. Types of fossils found in different climates B. What is learned from studying fossils Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 2/40

C. How fossils are discovered D. Conditions favorable to the preservation of fossils

Question 9: The word "traces" in line 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.

A. skeletons B. structures C. imprints D. importance

Question 10: All of the following facts about fossils are refereed to by the author (paragraph 1) EXCEPT

the fact that they can be

A. complete animal bodies B. microscopically small

C. fragile D. skeletons of human ancestors

Question 11: The fossil fish from the Green River (paragraph 3) were probably preserved because they

were ________________.

A. covered by sediment B. buried slowly C. protected by oil D. in a deep lake

Question 12: The word "exposed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________.

A. located B. photographed C. uncovered D. preserved

Question 13: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found as a fossil, assuming that all are buried

rapidly?

A. a worm B. a dinosaur C. a human ancestor D. a woolly mammoth

Question 14: It can be inferred that a condition that favors fossilization when volcanic ash falls to Earth is

____________.

A. high temperature B. cold storage C. quick burial D. lack of water

Question 15: Which of the following is true of the environments in which fossil are found?

A. There are few environments in which fossils are protected.

B. Very different environments can favor fossilization.

C. Environments that favor fossilization have similar climates.

D. Environments that favor fossilization support large populations of animals.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of

the questions, from 16 to 20

American Indians played a central role in the war known as the American Revolution. To them, however,

the dispute between the colonists and England was peripheral. For American Indians the conflict was a war

for American Indian independence, and whichever side they chose they lost it. Mary Brant was a powerful

influence among the Iroquois. She was a Mohawk, the leader of the society of all Iroquois matrons, and the

widow of Sir William Johnson, Superintendent of Indian Affairs. Her brother, Joseph Brant, is the best-

known American Indian warrior of the Revolution, yet she may have exerted even more influenced in the

Confederacy than he did. She used her influence to keep the western tribes of Iroquois loyal to the English

king, George III. When the colonists won the war, she and her tribe had to abandon their lands and retreat to

Canada. On the other side, Nancy Ward held position of authority in the Cherokee ration. She had fought as

a warrior in the war against the Creeks and as a reward for her heroism was made "Beloved Woman" of the

tribe. This office made her chief of the women's council and a member of the council of chiefs. She was

friendly with the White settlers and supported the Patriots during the Revolution. Yet the Cherokees too lost

their land.

Question 16: What is the main point the author makes in the passage?

A. Siding with the English in the Revolution helped American Indians regain their land.

B. Regardless of whom they supported in the Revolution, American Indians lost their land.

C. The outcome of the Revolution was largely determined by American Indian women.

D. At the time of the Revolution, the Superintendent of Indian Affairs had little power.

Question 17: According to the passage, Mary Brant's husband had been a ______________.

A. Mohawk chief B. government official C. Cherokee council member D. revolutionary hero

Question 18: To which tribe did Nancy Ward belong?

A. Mohawk B. Iroquois C. Creek D. Cherokee

Question 19: How did Nancy Ward gain her position of authority?

A. By being born into a powerful family B. By joining the Confederacy

C. By bravery in battle D. By marriage to a chief

Question 20: According to the. passage, what did Mary Brant and Nancy Ward have in, common? Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 3/40

A. Each influenced her tribe’s role in the American Revolution

B. Each went to England after the American Revolution.

C. Each lost a brother in the American Revolution.

D. Each was called "Beloved Woman" by her tribe.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each

pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 21: Scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.

A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.

B. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.

C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.

D. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.

Question 22: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight schedule.

A. Not having been informed of the change in flight schedule, Martin missed his flight.

B. Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule.

C. Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule.

D. Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in flight schedule.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase

that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 23 to 27

Millions of people of all ages enjoy a hobby which is both interesting (23)_________ fun. And every

year, more and more people start a stamp collection on their own and discover an interest which can last a

(24)_________. Starting your collection is easy because stamps can be found everywhere. Holiday postcards

from friends, birthday cards from relatives and letters from pen pals can all (25)_________ you with stamps

from all over the world. But once you have started collecting (26)_________, you will probably want to join

the Stamp Collectors’ Club (27)_________ exists to provide collectors with new British stamps.

Question 23: A. and B. also C. but D. or

Question 24: A. life buoy B. lifetime C. life insurance D. lifelong

Question 25: A. consider B. give C. provide D. take

Question 26: A. attractively B. seriously C. competitively D. greatly

Question 27: A. what B. when C. which D. where

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 28: Customer: Can I have a look at that pullover, please? - Salesgirl: _____________

A. Can I help you? B. Which one? This one? C. It’s much cheaper. D. Sorry, it’s out of stock.

Question 29: - Mike: Good morning. Could I speak to Mr. Brown, please? - Carter: ______________

A. Propably by Monday next week. B. I’ll have to ask the person you want to ring first.

C. Certainly. Would two o’clock be OK? D. He’s in a meeting. Can I take a message?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions

Question 30: In order to enjoy fine wine, one should drink it slowly, a little at a time.

A. spill it B. stir it C. smell it D. sip it

Question 31: John boasting again. I’ve heard him telling everyone he’s the best tennis player in the County.

A. speaking too much B. pulling my leg

C. holding his tongue D. blowing his own trumpet

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions

Question 32: He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head.

A. lost touch B. excited

C. took leave of his sense D. kept calm Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 4/40

Question 33: Perhaps the customer has overlooked his monthly statement and not paid the bill.

A. perused B. confused C. received D. neglected

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following

questions

Question 34: bought that second-hand car and he then recognized that he shouldn’t have done that.

A. Jack wished he did not buy that second-hand car.

B. Jack wished he had not bought that second-hand car.

C. Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car.

D. Jack regretted not buying that second-hand car.

Question 35: “John shouldn’t have behaved so badly,” said Janet.

A. Janet objected to John’s bad behavior. B. Janet was angry with John.

C. Janet dislikes John. D. Janet doesn’t like John’s behavior.

Question 36: My goal was to train myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future.

A. Self-training to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future is my desire.

B. I aimed at training myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future.

C. I train myself as much as possible with the aim of preparing for the future.

D. I try to attain the goal of learning as much as possible to prepare for the future.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 37: The discovery of penicillin was a significant medical _____________.

A. innovation B. revolution C. breakthrough D. novelty

Question 38: Little _____________ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.

A. do I know B. I knew C. I have known D. did I know

Question 39: Please don't _____________ it amiss if I make a few suggestions for improvement.

A. judge B. take C. assume D. think

Question 40: I must confess I was ______________ myself with rage.

A. outside B. beside C. beyond D. above

Question 41: Different cultures _____________ dreams in different ways.

A. express B. interpret C. associate D. interfere

Question 42: Can I _____________ your brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.

A. have B. use C. pick D. mind

Question 43: Our family is a _____________ from which we can go into the world with confidence.

A. basis B. basal C. basic D. base

Question 44: Natural gas often occurs ______________ petroleum in the minute pores of rocks such as

sandstone and limestone.

A. both together with B. both together C. both with D. with

Question 45: It is the greatest happiness on earth ______________.

A. to love and to be loved B. love and be loved C. loving and to be loved D. to love and being loved

Question 46: The authorities recommend that the meeting ______________ next Wednesday.

A. be held B. is held C. will be held D. held

Question 47: An eccentric is by definition someone whose behavior is _____________, someone who

refuses to conform to the accepted norms of his society.

A. abnormalities B. abnormally C. abnormal D. abnormality

Question 48: _____________, his television would not be so loud.

A. Had Rafael being studied B. Were Rafael studying

C. If Rafael studies D. Unless Rafael was studying

Question 49: If you need any support, you can rely on me to _____________.

A. set you down B. back you up C. face up to you D. put you through

Question 50: Life is a diary _____________ each line contains a story of experience.

A. who B. that C. in which D. which Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 5/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

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ĐỀ SỐ 02

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. behave B. academic C. examination D. grade

Question 2: A. introduces B. practices C. wishes D. leaves

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. technology B. achievement C. economics D. dependent

Question 4: A. humidity B. incredible C. necessary D. endangered

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following

questions

Question 5: Neither of the two candidates who had applied for admission to the Industrial Engineering

A B C

Department were eligible for admission.

D

Question 6: Prevented the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before were what

A B C

stopped the flood from reaching his house.

D

Question 7: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of the

A B C D

hereditary nature of many diseases.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 8: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.

A. direct B. facial C. available D. instant

Question 9: With so many daily design resources, how do you stay up-date with technology without spending

too much time on it?

A. connect to the Internet all day B. update new status

C. use social network daily D. get latest information

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 10: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly.

A. knowledgeable B. ignorant C. rude D. uneducated

Question 11: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas and the result is the growth of cities.

A. transposition B. maintenance C. movement D. variation

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 12 to 16

Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. Although a few well-known ones,

like Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become very (12)________, most writers find it difficult even to

make a living from their book sales. Novels take a long time to write and authors can get into financial

(13)________ if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job. But for those (14)________ to

write novels, it is without doubt one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be creative,

thinking up completely new stories, and (15)________, meaning they put all their time and effort into their work.

They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them. For this, a good sense

of humor often helps. Or the thought that may be their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a

Hollywood (16)________!

Question 12: A. worth B. plenty C. wealthy D. valuable

Question 13: A. problem B. trouble C. worry D. upset

Question 14: A. fixed B. convinced C. agreed D. determined

Question 15: A. dedicated B. delivered C. deliberate D. decided Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 6/40

Question 16: A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. victory

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 17 to 24

Did you know that humans aren't the only species that use language? Bees communicate by dancing. Whales

talk to each other by singing. And some apes talk to humans by using American Sign Language.

Meet Koko, a female gorilla born at the San Francisco Zoo on July 4

th

, 1971. Koko learned sign language

from her trainer, Dr. Penny Patterson. Patterson began teaching sign language to Koko in 1972, when Koko was

one year old. Koko must have been a good student, because two years later she moved onto the Stanford

University campus with Dr. Patterson. Koko continued to learn on the campus until 1976. That's when she began

living full-time with Patterson's group, the Gorilla Foundation. Patterson and Koko's relationship has blossomed

ever since.

Dr. Patterson says that Koko has mastered sign language. She says that Koko knows over 1,000 words, and

that Koko makes up new words. For example, Koko didn't know the sign for ring, so she signed the words finger

and bracelet. Dr. Patterson thinks that this shows meaningful and constructive use of language.

Not everyone agrees with Dr. Patterson. Some argue that apes like Koko do not understand the meaning of

what they are doing. Skeptics say that these apes are just performing complex tricks. For example, if Koko points

to an apple and signs red or apple, Dr. Patterson will give her an apple. They argue that Koko does not really

know what the sign apple means. She only knows that that if she makes the right motion, one which Dr. Patterson

has shown her, then she gets an apple. The debate is unresolved, but one thing is for certain: Koko is an

extraordinary ape.

Sign language isn't the only unusual thing about Koko. She's also been a pet-owner. In 1983, at the age of 12,

researchers said that Koko asked for a cat for Christmas. They gave Koko a stuffed cat. Koko was not happy. She

did not play with it, and she continued to sign sad. So for her birthday in 1984, they let her pick a cat out of an

abandoned liter. Koko picked a gray cat and named him "All Ball." Dr. Patterson said that Koko loved and

nurtured All Ball as though he were a baby gorilla. Sadly, All Ball got out of Koko's cage and was hit by a car.

Patterson reported that Koko signed "Bad, sad, bad" and "Frown, cry, frown, sad" when she broke the news to

her.

It seems like Patterson and Koko have a good relationship, but not everyone agrees with it. Some critics

believe that Patterson is humanizing the ape. They believe that apes should be left in the most natural state

possible. Even Dr. Patterson struggles with these feelings. When asked if her findings could be duplicated by

another group of scientists, she said, "We don't think that it would be ethical to do again." She went on to argue

that animals should not be kept in such unnatural circumstances. Nonetheless, Koko lives in her foundation

today.

As for the future, Dr. Patterson and the Gorilla Foundation would love to get Koko to an ape preserve in Maui,

but they are having trouble securing the land. So unless you have a few million dollars to spare, Koko's going to

be spending her time in Woodland, California with Dr. Patterson. Koko probably doesn't mind that. If she moved

to Hawaii, she'd have to give up her Facebook page and Twitter feed, and she's got like 50 thousand likes. Some

may deny that she knows sign language, but nobody says that she doesn't know social networking.

Question 17: Which best expresses the main idea of this article?

A. It is natural for gorillas and house cats to live together.

B. If you want a lot of "likes" on Facebook, get a talking gorilla.

C. Koko uses sign language but some people think it's just a trick.

D. Bees, whales, and apes like Koko all use language to communicate.

Question 18: Which best expresses the author's purpose in writing the second paragraph?

A. The author is persuading readers that Koko should be freed.

B. The author is telling readers about Koko and Dr. Patterson's background.

C. The author is informing readers how Dr. Patterson developed her skills.

D. The author is describing the environment in which Koko lives.

Question 19: Which happened LAST?

A. Dr. Patterson began teaching Koko to sign. B. Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation.

C. Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas. D. Koko lost All Ball.

Question 20: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?

A. Koko doesn't really know sign language. B. Some people are troubled by how Koko was raised.

C. Everybody likes how Dr. Patterson has raised Koko. D. Koko has mastered sign language without a doubt.

Question 21: Which best defines the word "duplicated" as it is used in the sixth paragraph?

A. To copy or recreate something B. To dispute a fact or disagree with someone Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 7/40

C. To be disproven through debate D. To lie to someone or to fool them

Question 22: Which event happened FIRST?

A. Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation. B. Koko moved onto the Stanford University campus.

C. Koko picked All Ball out for her birthday. D. Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas.

Question 23: Which best describes the main idea of the SIXTH paragraph?

A. Dr. Patterson has treated Koko very cruelly.

B. Some people are working very hard to prove that Dr. Patterson is wrong.

C. Dr. Patterson and Koko have a beautiful, pure, and unconflicted relationship.

D. Some people think that Koko should not have been treated like a human.

Question 24: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?

A. Some people think that Koko only signs to get food.

B. Dr. Patterson has no regrets about working with Koko.

C. The Gorilla Foundation would like to move Koko to an ape preserve.

D. Dr. Patterson has worked hard to teach Koko sign language.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 25 to 29

The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals rather than companies.

Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send colonists to the New World. His initial expedition, which

sailed in 1578 with a patent granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the Spanish. A second attempt ended in

disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his ship were lost in a storm. In the following year, Gilbert's half brother, Sir

Water Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent, sponsored an expedition that explored the coast of the

region that he named "Virginia." Under Raleigh's direction efforts were then made to establish a colony on

Roanoke island in 1585 and 1587. The survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke returned to England in 1586,

but the second group of colonists disappeared without leaving a trace. The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh

ventures made it clear that the tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer. Within a short time

the trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization.

Question 25: Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?

A. British - Spanish Rivalry in the New World B. Early Attempts at Colonizing North America

C. The Regulation of Trading Companies D. Royal Patents Issued in the 16th Century

Question 26: The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be involved in

establishing colonies in North America?

A. They were acting on their own. B. They were members of large trading companies.

C. They were immediately successful. D. They were requested to do so by Queen Elizabeth.

Question 27: According to the passage, which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey Gilbert is true?

A. He fought the Spanish twice. B. His trading company was given a patent by the queen.

C. He died in 1587. D. He never settled in North America.

Question 28: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about members of the first Roanoke settlement?

A. Most were not experienced sailors. B. They named the area "Virginia".

C. Some did not survive. D. They explored the entire coastal region.

Question 29: According to the passage, which of; the following statements about the second settlement on

Roanoke Island is true?

A. It was conquered by the Spanish. B. Its settlers all gave up and returned to England.

C. The fate of its inhabitants is unknown. D. It lasted for several years.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 30: We are aware that, _____________, the situation will get worse.

A. if dealt not carefully with B. if not carefully dealing with

C. unless dealing with carefully D. if not carefully dealt with

Question 31: - "Can you read that sign?" - "Just a minute. Let me ____________ my glasses."

A. put away B. put off C. put on D. put with

Question 32: Because the waiter didn’t ____________ what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of

the chicken wings that I’d wanted.

A. stay up B. call on C. check in D. take down

Question 33: It is thought that traditional marriage ____________ are important basis of limiting divorce rates.

A. records B. responses C. appearances D. values

Question 34: She agreed that all the present paperwork ____________ for everyone to have more time to socialize.

A. to stop B. stopping C. be stopped D. stopped Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 8/40

Question 35: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made ___________ accident.

A. by B. at C. in D. on

Question 36: The world famous physicist and ___________ Stephen Hawking published an important paper

before he died at the age of 76

A. cosmonaut B. cosmology C. cosmologist D. cosmologic

Question 37: ___________ did not surprise us.

A. That Peter failed his exam B. Peter failed his exam that

C. Peter failed his exam, that D. Peter failed his exam

Question 38: Why don't you have the documents _____________?

A. to photocopy B. photocopied C. photocopying D. photocopy

Question 39: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ____________ with the interviewers.

A. touch B. connection C. contact D. link

Question 40: Italian TV has ____________ a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary.

A. ordered B. consulted C. commissioned D. appointed

Question 41: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ____________ the most.

A. that influences B. why farmers influence it C. it influences farmers D. farmers that is influences

Question 42: It is not easy to _____________ our beauty when we get older and older.

A. maintain B. develop C. gain D. collect

Question 43: The government was finally ____________ by a minor scandal.

A. pulled down B. taken down C. put back D. brought down

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 44: - Ann: Do you need any help? - Kate: _____________________________.

A. No, thanks. I can manage B. That’s fine by me

C. I haven’t got a clue D. That’s all for now

Question 45: - "What’s the matter? You don’t look very well." - "_____________________________."

A. I feel a little under the weather B. I feel a little under the impression

C. I feel a little out of the blue D. I feel a little out of order

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: Despite her inexperience in the field, Lynn applied for the job.

A. Lynn applied for the job even though she had no experience in the field.

B. Lynn was unable to do the job because she was inexperienced.

C. Lynn applied for the job because she had experience in the field.

D. Lynn did not apply for the job because of her inexperience in the field.

Question 47: Without his help, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay.

A. Had he helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay.

B. If he hadn’t helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay.

C. He didn’t help me, so I hadn’t been able to complete my essay.

D. He hadn’t helped me, but I could complete my essay.

Question 48: "Believe me. It's no use buying that machine," Jimmy told his friend.

A. Jimmy suggested to his friend that buying the machine was useful.

B. Jimmy tried to convince his friend that the machine was not worth buying.

C. Jimmy opposed his friend's idea that buying the machine was not useful.

D. Jimmy managed to persuade his friend that buying the machine was worthwhile.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of

sentences in the following questions

Question 49: Sheila worked on a project together with Keith. She got married to him afterwards.

A. Sheila worked on a project with Keith, whom she had married earlier.

B. Sheila got married to Keith before they worked on a project together.

C. Sheila and Keith were married, so they began to work on the project together.

D. Sheila got married to Keith, with whom she had worked on a project together.

Question 50: What the teacher told me has given me food for thought.

A. The teacher told me about the food that was good for me.

B. The teacher told me something that was too difficult for me to do.

C. I didn't care much about what the teacher told me.

D. I must think seriously of what the teachers told me. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 9/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 03

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. decoration B. opportunity C. expectation D. temperature

Question 2: A. digest B. describe C. swallow D. advice

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. necessity B. economy C. society D. facility

Question 4: A. schedule B. picture C. match D. children

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 5: He asked the salesman for his refund for the laptop he had bought.

A. pay back B. charge C. repay D. return

Question 6: Despite all my anxiety, I got hired for the job I wanted.

A. was offered B. was offering C. was dismissed from D. took

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 7: Our new house is modern but there is not enough room to swing a cat.

A. there's no space for children B. there's no playground for cats

C. it's very small D. there's no room to keep cats

Question 8: We played my brother's school at football and beat them hollow.

A. had a draw B. lost the game C. defeated easily D. broke a nil score

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 9: - Trang: "I live in Vietnam." - Thomas: "_________________________”

A. About where? B. Whereabouts? C. What is it about? D. How about in Hanoi?

Question 10: - Tom: Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here. - Peter: _____________

A. Well, it’s worth a try. B. No, I wouldn’t mind at all.

C. That’s all right. D. Not on my account.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 11: Lake Superior, _________________, borders on the United States and Canada.

A. in the world is the largest lake B. is largest lake in the world

C. it is the largest lake in the world D. which is the largest lake in the world

Question 12: I must confess that I was ______________ myself with rage.

A. outside B. beside C. above D. beyond

Question 13: ______________ I can't make the presentation myself, I've asked my assistant to be prepared to do it for me.

A. For B. In the event that C. Only if D. On the other hand

Question 14: - "What was the groom wearing?" - "He was dressed in a ____________."

A. light summer suit B. suit summer light C. summer suit light D. light suit summer

Question 15: Just put your coat in __________________.

A. the hall's closet B. hall closet C. the hall closet D. the closet of the hall

Question 16: Please go to ______________ to pick up your ID card.

A. window third B. the third window C. the window three D. third window

Question 17: The ______________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face.

A. stylistic B. stylistically C. stylish D. stylishly

Question 18: The thief managed to ______________ the police barricade.

A. break on B. break down C. break in D. break through Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 10/40

Question 19: _____________ excellent art museums, Moscow has a world-famous ballet company.

A. Because of B. In spite of C. In case of D. In addition to

Question 20: The teacher is going to _______________ the children according to height.

A. group B. collect C. flock D. gather

Question 21: Lightning currents ______________ to the interior of an airplane.

A. penetrate in rarity B. penetrate seldom C. seldom penetrate D. rare penetrate

Question 22: You ________________ your seats today if you want to go to the game.

A. had better to reserve B. had better reserve C. had to better reserve D. had to reserve better

Question 23: Gabriel Garcia Marquez, a Colombian writer whose book One Hundred Years of Solitude is among

his most famous, ________________ the Nobel prize in 1982.

A. who won B. having won C. which won D. won

Question 24: When he went to Egypt, he knew _____________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become

extremely fluent.

A. scarcely B. virtually C. entirely D. barely

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following

questions

Question 25: The bones of the elderly are more prone to fractures than of young people.

A B C D

Question 26: Folklore consists of the beliefs, customs, traditions, and telling stories that people pass from

A B C

generation to generation.

D

Question 27: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 28 to 32

The final stage before adulthood is adolescence. This is a period of transition for teenagers and there are many

crucial milestones. Socially and emotionally, teens worry that they may not be developing at the same rate

(28)_________ their peers. They become extremely self-conscious and may be sensitive about their appearance.

Teens may rebel (29)_________ their parents but are also more able to accept the consequences of their actions.

This is also a period of enormous physical changes and adolescents experience changes in their physical

development at a rate unparalleled since infancy. These changes include significant gains in height and weight.

Within a year, boys and girls can gain an (30)_________ of 4.1 inches and 3.5 inches repectively. This growth

spurt typically 2 years earlier for girls than for boys and can tend to make both sexes go through a clumsy phase.

(31)_________ their cognitive development, adolescents have greater reasoning skills and have developed the

ability to think logically and hypothetically. They are also able to discuss more abstract concepts. They should

also have (32)_________ strategies to help them study.

Question 28: A. like B. just C. along D. as

Question 29: A. against B. to C. for D. with

Question 30: A. amount B. addition C. average D. increase

Question 31: A. In terms of B. In addition to C. In spite of D. Regardless of

Question 32: A. developed B. grown C. achieved D. advanced

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 33 to 37

As viewed from space, the Earth's distinguishing characteristics are its blue waters and white clouds.

Enveloped by an ocean of air consisting of 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, the planet is the only one in our solar

system known to harbor life. Circling the Sun at an average distance of 149 million km (93 million miles). The

Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the fifth largest planet in the solar system.

Its rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core give rise to an extensive magnetic field which, coupled with the

atmosphere, shields us from nearly all of the harmful radiation coming from the Sun and other stars. Most

meteors burn up in the Earth's atmosphere before they can strike the surface. The planet's active geological Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 11/40

processes have left no evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly received soon after it was formed. The

Earth has a single natural satellite - the Moon.

Question 33: Approximately how much of the Earth's atmosphere isnitrogen?

A. Over three-fourths B. Over one-half C. Over one-fourth D. All of it

Question 34: Which of the following helps to create Earth's magnetic fields?

A. Its nitrogen atmosphere B. Its blue waters C. The Moon D. Its molten metal core

Question 35: What two factors help protect the Earth from radiation?

A. Magnetic field and atmosphere B. Blue waters and white clouds

C. Rapid spin and molten iron-nickel core D. The Sun and the Moon

Question 36: The main idea of this passage is that _____________.

A. Earth has no common characteristics with other planets B. Earth is predominantly watered

C. Earth is the only planet with a moon D. there are life-supporting characteristics on Earth

Question 37: This selection leads one to believe that ____________.

A. Earth may be bombarded by meteors in the near future B. Earth always gets hit by meteors

C. Earth never gets hit by meteors D. Earth was hit by meteors in some past time period

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following

questions

Question 38: The way to get the best out of me is to make me work very hard.

A. My work is under consideration, so I do my best. B. If you make me work hard, I can't get the best.

C. I work best when I am under pressure. D. Don't make me work hard or I can't make the best out of me.

Question 39: I found myself at a loss to understand my closest friend’s words.

A. I found my closest friend's words quite incomprehensible.

B. I understood my closest friend's words completely.

C. I found my closest friend's words easy to understand.

D. I lost heart and didn't understand my closest friend's words.

Question 40: Peter had very little money but managed to make both ends meet.

A. Peter found it hard to live on very little money. B. Peter could hardly live on little money.

C. Peter got by on very little money. D. Having little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of

sentences in the following questions

Question 41: It was raining cats and dogs outside. I wanted to climb the mountain this morning but I couldn’t.

A. I couldn’t carry out my mountain climbing because there were many cats and dogs falling out the sky.

B. I found it rather hard to climb the mountain despite a heavy downpour outside.

C. The heavy rain made it posssible for me to continue going climbing this morning.

D. It was the heavy rain that prevented me from climbing the mountain today.

Question 42: The most successful candidates are not always the best educated. They are the best trained in the

technique.

A. The most successful candidates are not only the best educated but also the best trained in the technique.

B. The most successful candidates are not always the best educated, but the best trained in the technique.

C. The most successful candidates are the best at training in the technique, if not they will need education.

D. The most successful candidates are people who are trained well in the technique, although well educated.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 43 to 50

Imagine that you're a fly. You're just zipping around the sky, looking for a place to rest, when you see nice

pink leaf. That looks like a nice place to land. You think to yourself in your fly head. As you rest your feet on the

leaf, you notice something strange. This leaf is hairy. You begin to make your move, but you trigger the plant's

reflex. Snap! In one-tenth of a second, you are caught in the Venus flytrap. You will be digested in five to twelve

days. Welcome to the world of carnivorous plants!

There are over a quarter of a million plant species. Only 600 or so are carnivorous. We call them this because

they attract, trap, and eat bugs. Like other plants, they get energy from the sun. But unlike other plants, they get

their nutrients from their prey. Carnivorous plants live in bogs and places where the soil lacks nutrients. Most

plants get nutrients from the soil. Carnivorous plants have turned to other sources. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 12/40

The snap of the Venus flytrap is not the only way that plants eat bugs. Pitcher plants trick their prey into

landing on them. They offer nectar bribes to the foolish insects that would take them. True to their name, pitcher

plants have deep chambers. Their landing surface is slippery. They have inward pointing hairs, making it hard to

escape. The fly lands on the pitcher plant to eat, but slips into a pit filled with digestive fluids and is eaten.

Then there're sundews. We call them sundews because they sparkle in the sun as if covered in morning dew.

Of course, that sparkle is from something much more treacherous. It is a sweet goo called mucilage that bugs

can't resist. Sundews create mucilage to attract bugs. As they fly in to eat, bugs become trapped in the very object

of their desire. They soon exhaust themselves by trying to escape the mucilage. Or the sundew's tentacles, which

respond to prey by curling around them, smother them. Bugs usually die in about 15 minutes. Then the plant

dissolves its prey in enzymes and absorbs the nutrients.

Have you ever walked into trouble and found that you couldn't get out? So has every insect that has ever

wandered into a corkscrew plant. Bugs love to investigate plants for nectar and food.

Corkscrew plants have inviting stems. Curved hairs line the inside of these stems. These hairs allow insects to

go up the stems, but not back. Going forward leads a chamber filled with digestive fluid, the plant's stomach.

Bugs who wander into the corkscrew plant find that they are unable to escape. They must march to their own

demise.

And then there are the bladderworts. They're about as nice as they sound. They live in water and float near the

surface. Their traps are like small bladders hidden beneath the water. Only their flowers are visible from the

surface. When bugs swim into the trigger hairs, the plant reacts. A trapdoor in the bladder opens up. The bladder

sucks up the prey and the water surrounding it. A tenth of a second later, the bladder shuts again. The plant has

trapped the prey. It releases digestive fluids. The prey will be digested within hours.

Carnivorous plants might sound tough, but they are difficult to keep at home. They are built to survive in

places that other plants cannot. This specialization comes at a cost. They have a hard time adapting to other

environments. Their strengths become weaknesses in rich soil. They depend on the harsh yet delicate

environments in which they thrive. They are not so hardy after all. Still, there's something to be said about the

power of life when one finds a plant that can survive in barren soil.

Question 43: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?

A. Only a small number of plants are carnivorous. B. There are too few plant species in the world.

C. There are too many species of carnivorous plants. D. A majority of plants are carnivorous.

Question 44: Which plant traps bugs in its stem and forces them to walk forward?

A. Bladderworts B. Corkscrew plants C. Sundews D. Pitcher plants

Question 45: Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Carnivorous plants get their energy from eating bugs. B. Carnivorous plants get their nutrients from eating bugs.

C. Carnivorous plants do not get nutrients from the soil. D. Carnivorous plants get their energy from the sun.

Question 46: Which event happens LAST when a sundew eats a meal?

A. The bug is attracted to the mucilage. B. The sundew's tentacles curl in response to the prey.

C. The sundew releases enzymes. D. The sundew creates mucilage.

Question 47: Which best expresses the main idea of the THIRD paragraph?

A. There are more types of carnivorous plants than the Venus fly trap.

B. The pitcher plant tricks bugs into falling into its stomach.

C. The Venus flytrap kills its prey in various ways.

D. Some plants attract bugs by offering them nectar.

Question 48: Which best describes the overall text structure of the second paragraph?

A. Sequential order B. Chronological order C. Compare and contrast D. Spatial

Question 49: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?

A. Carnivorous plants are tough and can live in any environment.

B. Bladderworts react quickly when their trigger hairs are bumped.

C. Carnivorous plants cannot thrive in rich soil.

D. Bladderworts hide their traps just below the surface of the water.

Question 50: Which title best expresses the author's main purpose in writing this text?

A. Watch Out! How To Avoid Being Eaten by Carnivorous Plants

B. At Risk: How You Can Help to Preserve Carnivorous Plants

C. Venus Flytrap: Nature's Most Beautiful and Dangerous Plant

D. Fatal Flowers: Plants That Kill Insects. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 13/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 04

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. handcraft B. handbag C. handbook D. handkerchief

Question 2: A. procession B. depression C. erosion D. tension

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. accompany B. optimistic C. minority D. eradicate

Question 4: A. renovation B. stability C. eliminate D. accelerate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 5: - Peter: Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house. - Linda: _______________.

A. Nothing more to say B. You can say that again C. Yes, I hope so D. No, dogs are good, too

Question 6: - Lan: How do you find Hanoi? - Justin: ________________

A. Are you living here? B. Hanoi is the capital of Vietnam.

C. It’s a beautiful city. D. I got a map from the tourist office.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 7: He hid the gun in his pocket.

A. concealed B. put C. hit D. covered

Question 8: "She always expresses her deep sympathy towards homeless children.”

A. broad B. inside C. profound D. kind

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 9: The economy has shuddered to a halt because of the civil war.

A. been flying high B. lingered to success C. gone to the moon D. stopped suddenly

Question 10: He firmly believes that she is innocent of the crime.

A. aware B. ignorant C. informative D. guilty

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 11: In some nations coffee in the favourite beverage, while _____________.

A. I like tea B. in has caffeine C. in others it is tea D. tea has caffeine too

Question 12: Could you please tell me the ____________ for Biology 457 and Chemistry 610?

A. room's number B. rooms numbers C. rooms number D. room numbers

Question 13: Friends can help you to _____________ a difficult time in your life.

A. get around B. get by C. get through D. get over

Question 14: There is a ____________ vase on the table.

A. small-nice-China-blue B. nice-blue-small-China C. China-small-blue-nice D. nice-small-blue-China

Question 15: They stayed for hours, ____________ my mother was very annoyed about.

A. this B. whom C. which D. that

Question 16: The ballon festival is ____________ event that we all desire to attend it.

A. a too wonderful B. a very wonderful C. such wonderful an D. so wonderful an

Question 17: Many countries can attract many tourists in summer because their weather is ___________ warm, often hot.

A. independently B. dependence C. dependably D. dependently

Question 18: I like that photo very much. Could you make an ____________ for me? Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 14/40

A. enlargement B. expansion C. increase D. extension

Question 19: After the interview, don’t neglect the thank-you note or ____________ letter.

A. follow-up B. break-up C. turn-up D. start-up

Question 20: ______________ unprepared for the exam, I felt sure I would get a low score.

A. Upon B. Having C. Being D. Because

Question 21: Although born in Germany, ____________ a citizen of the United States in 1940.

A. that Albert Einstein became B. but Albert Einstein became

C. Albert Einstein became D. since became Albert Einstein

Question 22: Bell's doctor insists ____________ for a few days

A. him to rest B. his resting C. that he is resting D. that he rest

Question 23: Sending ___________, "special delivery", costs about fifteen times as much as sending it "regular delivery".

A. pieces of a mail B. a mail C. mails D. a piece of mail

Question 24: _____________, meat takes on the flavor of the wood it was smoked in.

A. When smoking B. When is it smoked C. When smoked D. It's when it's smoked

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following

questions

Question 25: You could not have made a very good impression on them.

A. Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable.

B. It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive.

C. You seem to have impressed them very unfavourably.

D. You should have tried harder to make them think well of you.

Question 26: Many people lack enough water due to population growth and climate change.

A. Many people lack enough water; therefore, the population grows, and climate changes.

B. Owing to many people’s lack of water, the population grows, and climate changes.

C. Because many people lack enough water, the population grows, and climate changes.

D. Many people lack enough water not only due to population growth, but also because of climate change.

Question 27: My boy was just not strong enough to have caused so much damage.

A. Someone else, not my boy, caused the damage.

B. My boy wasn’t strong, but he caused great damage.

C. My boy, though quite strong, caused little damage himself.

D. Not much damage was caused because my boy was very weak.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 28 to 35

SOICHIRO HONDA

Soichiro Honda was born in 1906 in a small village in Japan. It was so small that it didn’t even have

electricity. His family was poor. Soichiro had eight brothers and sisters. Sadly, five of them died when they were

young because they did not have good medical care. When Soichiro was eight years old, he saw his first

automobile. He was amazed by it. For the next 50 years, he loved machines on wheels. When he was 15 years

old, Soichiro left his village to work at an auto repair shop in Tokyo. It was then that Honda discovered

motorcycles. He spent all of his free time fixing and riding motorcycles. He returned to his village six years later

to open his own garage. Soon he owned several shops and had over 50 employees.

At the same time, he began to build and race motorcycles and cars. Honda loved to race, and he became one of

Japan’s most competitive drivers. In 1936, his race car crashed while he was driving 100 miles per hour. Half of

Honda’s face was crushed, and he had other serious injuries. It took him a year and a half to recover. After this,

his family begged him to give up racing. He looked for a less dangerous job and finally decided to become a

manufacturer.

At first, he manufactured engine parts. The Japanese navy used a lot of his engine parts in World War II. In

1948, after the war, he started the Honda Motor Company. He started the company with only $3,300. He made

his first machines from engine parts that the military did not need after the war. These machines were not real

motorcycles; they were bicycles with motors. People bought them because they needed a reliable form of

transportation. As Honda’s business grew, he began to make different types of motorcycles. By 1950, his Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 15/40

motorcycles were selling all over Japan. But there were 50 other motorcycle makers in Japan at the time. In 1958,

Honda designed a lightweight motorcycle called the Super Cub. It was a huge success and Honda made a lot of

money. Two years later, Honda built the world’s biggest motorcycle factory in Japan.

By the 1960s, the Super Cub was popular all over Asia. But Honda wanted the motorcycle to be popular all

over the world. In Europe, he put his motorcycles in difficult races to show how good they were. In the United

States, he tried a different method. He used a magazine ad with the words “You Meet the Nicest People on a

Honda.” It showed ordinary Americans such as students, businessmen, and older people all riding happily on the

Honda Super Cub. The ad appeared in many popular magazines.

Readers who had never ridden a motorcycle saw the ad. The ad showed that motorcycles were not just for

crazy young people who wore black leather jackets.They were good for other people too. The company sold

thousands of motorcycles to new riders. Honda then started to put the ads on television. This was also very

successful. For example, he put an ad for his motorcycle on during the Academy Awards program. Millions of

people watched that program, and on the next day, sales of the motorcycle went up tremendously. By 1968,

Honda had sold 1 million motorcycles in the United States.

In 1963, his company started to make cars. In 1972, it produced the Civic; the next year, the Accord; and then

in 1978, the Prelude. Soon, the company was one of the world’s biggest automobile makers. Honda was also

famous for his business style. He believed that workers and bosses should have a close relationship. He also

thought it was important to encourage workers to do their best.

In 1973, Soichiro Honda retired as president of his company. He died in 1991. Honda was very important to

Japan’s recent history. He and many other business leaders helped make Japan into a leading industrial nation.

Question 28: Where did Honda go when he left his village?

A. He went to open repair shop. B. He went to work at an auto repair shop in Tokyo.

C. He went to work as a motor racer. D. He went to fix and ride motorcycles.

Question 29: Honda was very successful because he _____________.

A. wasn’t afraid to take chances B. had a good education

C. owned the only motorcycle maker D. put his motorcycles in difficult races

Question 30: Soichiro Honda _____________.

A. wasted his time working at an auto repair shop B. was poor when hestarted out, but later became a success

C. manufactured cars and motorcycles all his life D. a mechanic coming from a poor family

Question 31: What was different about the new motorcycle that Honda designed?

A. It was the biggest one B. It was a cheaper one C. It was a lightweight one D. It was a bicycle with motor.

Question 32: What happened to Honda’s race car in 1936?

A. It collapsed. B. It was crushed. C. It was injured. D. It crashed.

Question 33: Honda started the Honda Motor Company in ____________.

A. 1984 B. 1948 C. 1960 D. 1950

Question 34: The word "tremmendously" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______________.

A. terribly B. awfully C. slowly D. enormously

Question 35: Honda’s business was ______________.

A. small in the beginning only and then expanded B. selling motorcycles to young people

C. a huge success from the beginning D. a huge success in the United States

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 36 to 40

LIFE OF EARTH IN 2110

The worst prediction for the next century (36)________ the weather. Many people think that global warming

will cause important environmental changes. There is scientific evidence that suggests cities on the coast may

disappear if the sea level (37)________. There is better news regarding health. Medical advances mean that

people will live longer. Doctors will be more successfully diagnosing an illness (38)________ of new

technology. Infective diseases will disappear in many areas of the world and new drugs will be how to treat

muscular aches and pains. Futuristic organ transplants will be easier. Finally, scientists think they are near to

solving the mystery (39)________ to make people invisible. Technological progress will give experts the chance

to manufacture invisibility cloaks, which may be (40)________ the market before the end of the century.

Question 36: A. involves B. concerns C. relates D. contacts Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 16/40

Question 37: A. lifts B. rises C. roars D. raises

Question 38: A. because B. approving C. in spite D. regardless

Question 39: A. necessary B. accessible C. available D. essential

Question 40: A. at B. on C. in D. to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of

sentences in the following questions

Question 41: My mother is on a business trip. However, we have a cooked dinner every evening.

A. We have a cooked dinner every evening, so my mother is on a business trip.

B. Although my mother is on a business trip, we have a cooked dinner every evening.

C. When we have a cooked dinner every evening, my mother is on a business trip.

D. Because my mother is on a business trip, we have a cooked dinner every evening.

Question 42: Collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby. I know a lot of people who do this.

A. However collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who do this.

B. Because collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who do this.

C. Collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby; therfore, I know a lot of people who do this.

D. Despite collectimg decayed teeth being an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who do this.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following

questions

Question 43: Can you get everybody altogether for the meeting in ten minutes?

A B C D

Question 44: David was surprised by the amount of time necessary to fix the store house.

A B C D

Question 45: They arrived to Paris sometime early in the summer.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 46 to 50

Today, I’d like to begin a discussion on the problem of the heating up of the earth. First, we’ll touch on the

relationship between fluorocarbons and the ozone layer. You probably remember that the ozone layer is the

protective shield around the earth. It is important to all life, because it filters out harmful ultraviolet light from the

sun. Ozone itself, a form of oxygen, is regularly made by the action of the sun in the upper atmosphere. It is also

regularly destroyed by natural chemical processes.

The problem now is that too much of the ozone layer is being destroyed. Scientists suspect that certain

chemicals, such as fluoro-carbons, are contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer. And how do we use

fluoro-carbons? The most common uses are in spray cans and cooling systems. The chemical pollution from

these fluoro-carbons can account for some of the ozone losses that have been reported. There are, however, new

studies linking the sun itself to the depletion of the ozone layer. We’ll go into that new study more next time.

Question 46: Who is the most likely speaker?

A. A mechanic B. A professor C. A chemist D. A doctor

Question 47: What is the most important purpose of the ozone layer?

A. Protecting the earth B. Shielding the sun

C. Destroying chemicals D. Providing fluorocarbons

Question 48: What is the ozone layer made of?

A. Oxygen B. Fluorocarbons C. Ultraviolet light D. Shields

Question 49: The speaker’s main topic is _____________.

A. fluoro-carbons and the ozone layer B. the use of spray cans

C. ultraviolet light D. air-conditioning systems

Question 50: What will the speaker probably discuss next?

A. How to make air conditioners with fluorocarbons B. Harmful effects of ultraviolet light

C. The sun as a cause of ozone layer depletion D. The make-up of the ozone layer

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 17/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 05

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges, from 1 to 2

Question 1: - Laura: "What a lovely hat you have!" - Maria: "_________"

A. Thank you. It’s a present from my father. B. No problem. It’s a present from my father.

C. Of course not, it's not costly. D. I think so. It’s costly.

Question 2: - Kate: __________! - Jackie: Thanks, I will write to you when I come to London.

A. Have a nice trip B. Better luck next time C. Let’s go ahead D. Have a go

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of

the primary stress in each of the following questions, from 3 to 4

Question 3: A. mathematics B. engineering C. scientific D. laboratory

Question 4: A. university B. technology C. entertainment D. application

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three

in pronunciation in each of the following questions, from 5 to 6

Question 5: A. average B. indicate C. application D. grade

Question 6: A. each B. achieve C. chemistry D. choice

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions, from 7 to 20

Question 7: He ___________ to be offered the job.

A. was such inexperienced or was too inexperienced B. was too inexperienced

C. was such inexperienced D. not experienced

Question 8: ___________ colleges and ___________ universities are the main institutions that provide

tertiary education.

A. Ø / the B. The / Ø C. Ø / Ø D. The / the

Question 9: In most _______ developed countries, up to 50% of _______ population enters higher

education at some time in their lives.

A. Ø / the B. the / a C. Ø / Ø D. the / Ø

Question 10: How much money do you manage to ________?

A. go in for B. deal with C. come into D. live on

Question 11: We’ve got a very ________ teacher, who doesn’t mind if we are a bit late.

A. open-minded B. tolerated C. easy-going D. broad-minded

Question 12: Why exactly did war between the two countries ________?

A. break out B. go off C. set in D. call off

Question 13: He graduated with doctorates of _______ and surgery from Florence, gaining the highest

honors that year.

A. medicine B. medication C. medical D. medicate

Question 14: You shouldn't _______ to your teacher like that. It was very rude.

A. talked B. talk C. have talked D. have be talked

Question 15: A university is an institution of higher education and research, which grants _______ degrees

at all levels in a variety of subjects.

A. secondary B. optional C. academic D. vocational

Question 16: They didn’t find ________ in a foreign country.

A. it to live easy B. easy to live C. it easy to live D. it easy live

Question 17: Many scientists have shown ________ can be used for an ever-increasing number of tasks.

A. that lasers how B. that what lasers C. lasers how D. how lasers

Question 18: We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no ________ for them.

A. request B. claim C. demand D. requirement Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 18/40

Question 19: It is important that _________.

A. an exact record to be kept B. to keep an exact record

C. keeping an exact record D. an exact record should be kept

Question 20: Hardly anyone knows about the incident, ________?

A. don’t they B. doesn’t he C. does he D. do they

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following

questions, from 21 to 23

Question 21: Peter said if he were me, he would stop smoking.

A. I wanted Peter to stop smoking and he promised to do. B. Peter promised to stop smoking.

C. Peter said he would stop smoking as I wanted him to. D. Peter advised me to stop smoking.

Question 22: John speaks Chinese fluently because he used to live in China for ten years.

A. Unless John had lived in China for ten years, he could not have spoken Chinese fluently.

B. John could not speak Chinese fluently if he had not lived in China for ten years.

C. Suppose John has lived in China for ten years, he can speak Chinese fluently.

D. Provided that John lived in China for ten years, he could speak Chinese fluently.

Question 23: If only I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam.

A. I had studied hard enough and I passed the final exam.

B. I regret not studying hard enough to pass the final exam.

C. I studied hard otherwise I would fail the final exam.

D. I studied too hard to pass the final exam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of

the questions, from 24 to 28

America's foods began to affect the rest of the world. American emphasis on convenient and rapid

consumption is best represented in fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries and soft drinks. By the 1960s

and 1970s, fast foods became one of America's strongest exports as franchises for Mc Donalds and Burger

King spread through Europe and other parts of the world, including Russia and China. Traditional meals

cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace gave way to quick lunches and dinners eaten on the run as

other countries imitated American cultural patterns.

By the late 20

th

century, Americans had become more conscious of their diets, eating more poultry, fish

and vegetables, and fewer eggs and less beef. Cooks began to rediscover many world cuisines in forms

closer to their original. In California, chefs combined fresh fruits and vegetables available with ingredients

and spices borrowed from immigrant kitchens to create an innovative cooking style that was lighter than

traditional French, but more interesting and varied than typical American cuisine. Along with the states

wines, California cuisine took its place among the acknowledged forms of fine dining.

Question 24: Fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries, and soft drinks ________.

A. became more popular than meals cooked at home in China

B. are traditional meals of the US people

C. became popular with other European and Asian countries

D. are popular because of their nutritious values

Question 25: Which of the following is similar in meaning to the word "cuisine"?

A. cook B. cooking C. cookery D. style of cooking

Question 26: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

A. Fast foods became one of America's strongest exports.

B. Traditional meals cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace are not common in the US.

C. Mc Donalds and Burger King are American food suppliers successful in Europe.

D. America's cuisine used to have an influence on many countries.

Question 27: Which of the following statements is true?

A. Americans used to eat more poultry, fish, and fresh fruits and vegetables than they do now.

B. Cooking styles of other countries began to affect Americans by the late 20

th

century.

C. Fewer eggs and less beef in Americans' diet made them fitter.

D. By the late 20

th

century, fast foods had lost their popularity in the USA Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 19/40

Question 28: An innovative style of cooking was created in California _______.

A. and made the states wines well-known

B. by borrowing recipes from immigrant kitchens

C. to attract more immigrants to the state

D. by combining the local specialities with immigrants spices

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of

the questions, from 29 to 36

At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in need of

reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools because of the

strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not "waste" their time on education

but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that

educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt

that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As Superintendent of Education in

the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon matched in

other school districts around the country. He extended the school year from five to six months and improved

the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes

did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased public

awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.

Question 29: The best title for the passage could be _________.

A. Nineteenth - the Century of Reform

B. American education in the beginning of the 19

th

century

C. a flight for change

D. The beginnings of reform in American education

Question 30: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed _________.

A. good grades B. a strong educational background

C. a high level of intelligence. D. a lot of money

Question 31: The word "desperately" in the passage mostly means "_________".

A. partly B. urgently C. obviously D. completely

Question 32: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans

because ________.

A. all citizens should be educated in republic

B. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time

C. people had nothing else to do except go to school

D. education at the time was so cheap

Question 33: The word "reformers" in the passage mostly means ________.

A. people who really enjoy teaching B. people who work for the government

C. people who try to change things for the better D. people who believe that education is wasted

Question 34: The word "citizen" in the passage mostly means _________.

A. a person who works ,especially one who does a particular kind of work

B. a person who works in a particular country

C. a person who lives in a particular city

D. a person who has the legal right to belong to a particular country

Question 35: From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann _________.

A. worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts

B. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans

C. managed education in the state of Massachusetts

D. raised money for their educational development in Massachusetts

Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is a change that Horace Mann instituted?

A. The matching of the other districts’ policies B. Increased pay for students

C. The five-month school year D. Better teacher training

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 20/40

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions, from 37 to 38

Question 37: Every opponent must take a drug test before the race.

A. friend B. ally C. partner D. competitor

Question 38: The movie was so funny that we couldn’t help laughing.

A. chuckling B. crying C. weeping D. moaning

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions, from 39 to 40

Question 39: The lawn needs mowing again.

A. bending B. cutting C. repairing D. making

Question 40: My father is willing to contribute to household chores.

A. agreeable B. reluctant C. ready D. responsive

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the

following questions, from 41 to 43

Question 41: Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms.

A B C D

Question 42: As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States

A B

comes from marketing the films abroad.

C D

Question 43: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each

pair of sentences in the following questions, from 44 to 45

Question 44: She worked hard. She wanted to become a good teacher of English.

A. She worked so hard that she could become a good teacher of English.

B. She worked hard so as become a good teacher of English.

C. She worked so hard as to become a good teacher of English.

D. She worked hard so that she could become a good teacher of English.

Question 45: They asked him about the countries. He visited them last month.

A. They asked him about the countries which he visited last month.

B. They asked him about the countries where he visited them last month.

C. They asked him about the countries which he visited them last month.

D. They asked him about the countries where he visited last month.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase

that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 46 to 50

It was Pasteur who (46)________ the process of immunization. When he was experimenting with causes

of chicken cholera, he began to inoculate healthy chickens with weak cholera bacteria after inoculation, the

chickens became only slightly ill. And later, when he inoculated the chickens with normal cholera bacteria,

the chickens did not get the (47)________. Thus Pasteur discovered that the body builds (48)________

substances called antibodies in the blood. These antibodies, which attack harmful bacteria, can be formed by

injections of small amounts of the (49)________ themselves. For thousands of years, men had known that

certain diseases (50)________ people only once. Now Pasteur had shown what this process of immunization

was and how it could be used to control diseases.

Question 46: A. thought B. discovered C. controlled D. invented

Question 47: A. disease B. illness C. ease D. sickness

Question 48: A. preservative B. productive C. protective D. active

Question 49: A. drugs B. medicine C. bacteria D. water

Question 50: A. attach B. attain C. attack D. attend Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 21/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 06

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. fifteenth B. mouth C. southern D. author

Question 2: A. misses B. goes C. potatoes D. leaves

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. occupation B. miraculous C. determine D. diversity

Question 4: A. contact B. constant C. concern D. concert

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 5: The play lasted two hours with a(n) ________ of 15 minutes between part one and part two.

A. interval B. pause C. stop D. interruption

Question 6: The public are concerned ________ the increasing crime rates in the city.

A. with B. for C. about D. at

Question 7: Unless you ________ all of my questions, I can’t do anything to help you.

A. answered B. don’t answer C. are answering D. answer

Question 8: I was enjoying my book, but I stopped _________ a programme on TV.

A. reading to watch B. to read to watch C. to read for watching D. reading for to watch

Question 9: Standing on top of the hill, _________.

A. we can see a castle in the distance B. lies a castle in the middle of the island

C. people have seen a castle far away D. a castle can be seen from the distance

Question 10: When he went to Egypt, he knew ________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become extremely fluent.

A. scarcely B. virtually C. entirely D. barely

Question 11: Make sure you ________ us a visit when you are in town again.

A. give B. have C. do D. pay

Question 12: The ________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face.

A. stylish B. stylishly C. stylistic D. stylistically

Question 13: Students can _________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.

A. absorb B. provide C. transmit D. read

Question 14: ________ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.

A. Conditions B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Chances

Question 15: My uncle’s company made a very good profit in _________.

A. 1990’s B. the 1990 C. the 1990s D. 1990s

Question 16: ________ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and

mime performed to music.

A. To consider B. Considering C. Considered D. Being considering

Question 17: We all felt cold, wet and hungry; ________, we were lost.

A. so that B. although C. moreover D. however

Question 18: He ________ a terrible accident while he ________ along Ben Luc Bridge.

A. have seen / were walking B. see / am walking

C. saw / was walking D. was seeing / walked

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 19: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?

A. keep B. destroy C. decrease D. upgrade

Question 20: To absorb a younger workforce, many companies offered retirement plans as incentives for older

workers to retire and make way for the young ones who earned lower salary.

A. opportunities B. rewards C. motives D. encouragements Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 22/40

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 21: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear.

A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it

C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand

Question 22: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have

academic or personal problems.

A. sympathize B. please C. satisfy D. discourage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 23: Two friends, Peter and Linda, are talking about pets.

- Peter: Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house. - Linda: _______________.

A. Nothing more to say B. You can say that again C. Yes, I hope so D. No, dogs are good, too

Question 24: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late.

- Tom: Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here. - Peter: _______________

A. Well, it’s worth a try. B. No, I wouldn’t mind at all.

C. Not on my account. D. That’s all right.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 25 to 29

The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and

influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25)_______ more

harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably,

most parents (26)_______ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to

track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on

social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (27)________, we cannot deny the fact that text

messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (28) ________ evidence that

texting has affected literacy skills.

The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee, on

the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us,

according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office.

Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally

speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (29) ________.

They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.

Question 25: A. done B. made C. played D. brought

Question 26: A. what B. which C. whom D. who

Question 27: A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. So that

Question 28: A. doubtless B. unhesitating C. indisputable D. arguable

Question 29: A. warning B. term C. time D. notice

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 30 to 34

In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child.

In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept.

There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.

In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide

world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation

ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn

the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine

to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests.

Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about

three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young

warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second

stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting

the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 23/40

will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are

fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies.

Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.

Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Activities in a birth celebration. B. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby.

C. Celebrations in Africa. D. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa.

Question 31: Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?

A. near the thorn fence B. on the cattle farm C. at their house D. at the village church

Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?

A. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.

B. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family.

C. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.

D. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.

Question 33: The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. experience B. participate in C. explore D. commence

Question 34: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. the cattle owners B. the Maasai herds C. the young warriors D. the wild animals

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 35 to 42

What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What do

you hope about the future?

Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment to

technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose a program

from a "menu" and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the World

Wide Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By 2050,

music, films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer.

In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In many places,

agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot of water. Demand

for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages. Some futurologists

predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now.

In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't be any

accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050, the computer will

control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway around

the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space and land on Earth again. By 2050,

space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours.

In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already use robots.

Big companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day. By

2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes.

Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are electronic

devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf

people see and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already produced clones

of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they

behave and how much intelligence they have.

Question 35: The passage mainly discusses _________.

A. The effect of telecommunication on our future life. B. The changes in our future life compared with our life today.

C. The importance of cloning in the future. D. The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives.

Question 36: What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage?

A. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting.

B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business.

C. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices.

D. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today.

Question 37: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 _________.

A. Fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.

B. People will be able to travel around the world in two hours. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 24/40

C. No one will be injured or die because of accidents.

D. Space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.

Question 38: The word "This" in paragraph 3 refers to _________.

A. the cash crop planting B. the serious shortage C. the possible war D. the demand for water

Question 39: What is the author's attitude in paragraph 3?

A. concerned B. outraged C. explanatory D. emotional

Question 40: Why does the author use "prefer robots" in paragraph 5?

A. To show the importance of robots in production. B. To compare the robots with the workers.

C. To emphasize the scientist's role in inventing robots. D. To encourage the workers to resign from work.

Question 41: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.

A. diagnosed B. controlled C. transmitted D. caused

Question 42: What may NOT be true about life in 2050?

A. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again.

B. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times.

C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are.

D. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computer.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following

questions

Question 43: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing.

A B C D

Question 44: It’s less expensive to buy a computer part by part; you can save a few hundred dollars all together.

A B C D

Question 45: My brother is enough young to get a scholarship from the government.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen

A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen. B. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.

C. The kitchen is smaller than the living room. D. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.

Question 47: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.

A. Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company.

B. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.

C. Peter advised John complaining to the company.

D. Peter suggested John to complain to the company.

Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

A. It mustn’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

B. It couldn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

C. It can’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

D. It mightn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of

sentences in the following questions

Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.

A. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.

B. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.

C. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.

D. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.

Question 50: The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.

A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.

B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.

C. The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.

D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 25/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 07

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. facilities B. particular C. inhabitant D. governmental

Question 2: A. measurement B. information C. engineer D. economic

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. thereupon B. thrill C. through D. throne

Question 4: A. advanced B. orphaned C. weighed D. surprised

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 5 to 9

Very often, newborn babies are not beautiful. They are wrinkled or bald, or they have an angry expression on

their faces that seems to say, "Go away! I hate everybody". But (5)________ a parent, that bald, wrinkled, mean-

faced baby is the most beautiful and perfect child in the world. When that proud father or mother asks you, "Well,

what do you think isn't she beautiful?" What are you going to say? Is this the time for the truth? Of course not!

"You look that proud father in his eyes and say," Yes, she is! She's a (6)________ beauty. She's one in a

million. She's going to be a movie star! I can tell! She's as pretty as a fairy.

This is what we call in English a white lie. White lies don't hurt people; they aren't cruel or angry words.

People use them to make a difficult situation (7)________ easier. When people (8)________ dates, forget their

homework, or taste something new that they don't particularly.

Like while eating at a friend's house, they tell a white lie. They are trying to be kind. They don't want to hurt

someone's feelings. It is important to be honest. But many people feel that being kind and (9)________ is

sometimes more important.

Question 5: A. with B. to C. as for D. for

Question 6: A. true B. genuine C. real D. exact

Question 7: A. a little B. little C. far D. more

Question 8: A. disregard B. reject C. refuse D. deny

Question 9: A. considering B. considerate C. considered D. considerable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 10 to 17

What's fiercer than a lion but smaller than a beagle? The honey badger, one of the toughest mammals in Africa

and western Asia. Honey badgers stand less than a foot high. They are only a couple feet long. They weigh just

over 20 pounds. Yet they have a reputation for toughness that is far greater than their size. Some honey badgers

will chase away lions and take their kills. I guess that goes to show you that size isn't the only thing that matters

in a fight.

So what makes the honey badger so tough? They have speed, stamina, and agility, but so do many animals.

They aren't stronger than lions, so how do they stop them? The thing that sets the honey badger apart is their skin.

Their skin is thick and tough. Arrows, spears, and bites from other animals can rarely pierce it. Small bullets can't

even penetrate it. Not only is their skin thick and tough, it is also loose. This allows them to twist and turn to

attack while another animal is gripping them. The only safe grip one can get on a honey badger is on the back of

their necks.

Honey badgers have long, sharp claws. These claws are good for attacking and even better for digging. Honey

badgers are some of nature's most skilled diggers. They can dig a nine-foot tunnel into hard ground in about 10

minutes. They love to catch a meal by digging up the burrows of frogs, rodents, and cobras. They also use their

digging skills to create their homes. They live in small chambers in the ground and defend them fiercely. They

will attack horses, cows, and even water buffalo if they are foolish enough to poke around a honey badger's den.

You don't get a reputation like the honey badger by running from danger. The honey badger is fearless and a

tireless fighter. They will attack any creature that threatens them, man included. Because of the honey badger's

reputation, most predators avoid them. Some animals use the honey badger's rep to their advantage. Adult

cheetahs have spotted coats, but their kittens have silver manes and look like honey badgers. Some scientists

believe that their coloring tricks predators into avoiding them. Wouldn't you walk the other way if you saw a

honey badger?

You might be wondering: "If honey badgers are so tough, how did they get a name that makes them sound like

a piece of candy?" The answer makes sense. Since honey badgers have such thick skin, bee stings rarely harm Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 26/40

them. So honey badgers love to raid beehives. I can't blame them. Who doesn't like free honey? Honey badgers

chase after honey aggressively. So much so that beekeepers in Africa have to use electric fencing to hold them

back. There's nothing sweet about that.

Beekeepers aren't the only people who have grown to hate honey badgers. Honey badgers may be fun to read

about, but they are nasty neighbors. They attack chickens, livestock, and some say children, though they usually

leave people alone. But if a honey badger moves in your backyard, there's not a whole lot that you can do about

it. I mean, are you going to go and tangle with an animal that eats the bones of its prey? An animal with teeth

strong enough to crunch through turtle shells? An animal that never tires, gives up, or backs down? Yeah, I

wouldn't either...

Question 10: Which best expresses the main idea of the third paragraph?

A. Honey badgers will defend their homes to the death against any animal.

B. Honey badgers have sharp claws that they use for fighting.

C. Honey badgers use their claws to defend their homes.

D. Honey badgers digging skills assist them in many ways.

Question 11: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?

A. Honey badgers got their name from the sweet taste of their meat.

B. Honey badgers are large in size and tireless in fighting spirit.

C. What makes honey badgers so tough is their thick, loose skin.

D. What makes the honey badger so tough is their speed and strength.

Question 12: Which best defines the meaning of the word "burrows" as it is used in the third paragraph?

A. Lily pads or other seaweeds in which animals hide B. A water supply where small animals come to drink

C. Holes or tunnels in which animals live D. A nest or animal dwelling in a tree or bush

Question 13: Which best expresses the main idea of the last paragraph?

A. Honey badgers are a nuisance to the neighborhood.B. Beekeepers and honey badgers do not get along well.

C. Honey badgers have very strong jaws and teeth. D. Honey badgers eat chicken and livestock.

Question 14: Which best describes one of the author's main purposes in writing this text?

A. To persuade readers to join the efforts to protect honey badgers

B. To describe how honey badgers select their partners

C. To compare and contrast honey badgers with beagles and lions

D. To explain why honey badgers are so tough

Question 15: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?

A. Honey badgers are not afraid to fight with humans.

B. Honey badgers like to raid beehives to eat honey.

C. Honey badgers disguise their young to look like cheetah kittens.

D. Honey badgers are not the biggest animals, but they may be the toughest.

Question 16: Which animal is the honey badger afraid to attack?

A. Water buffalo B. Lion C. Poisonous snake D. None of these

Question 17: Which is NOT one of the honey badger's strengths?

A. Powerful jaws and strong teeth B. Thick skin

C. Tireless fighting spirit D. Poisonous claws

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 18: In China’s largest psychiatric facility, there is a serious lack of resources but the staff try hard to

___________ this in their treatment of the patients.

A. put up with B. make up for C. go in for D. set in for

Question 19: It is necessary that he ___________ of his old parents.

A. takes care B. to take care C. take care D. took care

Question 20: What a stupid thing to do. Can you imagine anyone ___________ so stupid?

A. that B. being C. to be D. who

Question 21: Learning English isn't so difficult once you ____________.

A. get on it B. get down to it C. get off it D. get

Question 22: People usually can get sufficient ___________ of the calcium their bodies need from the food they consume.

A. number B. variety C. source D. amount

Question 23: He showed his ___________ for the TV program by switching it off.

A. discontent B. boredom C. distaste D. annoyance

Question 24: The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as ___________.

A. productive B. unproductive C. productivity D. counterproductive

Question 25: You dropped it down the stairs? You're lucky it is still in one ___________!

A. whole B. piece C. entirely D. unit Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 27/40

Question 26: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, the weather is the one __________ the most.

A. that influences farmers B. it influences farmers C. farmers that is influences D. why farmers influence it

Question 27: The fumes were so thick that he was __________ for breath.

A. suffocating B. inhaling C. gasping D. wheezing

Question 28: The chairman requested that _____________.

A. the problem was more carefully studied B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied

C. the members studied more carefully the problem D. the members study the problem more carefully

Question 29: Prices of flats ___________ from a few thousand to millions of dollars.

A. vary B. change C. fluctuate D. differ

Question 30: John ___________ knowledge from many of his life experiences to his work.

A. accomplished B. applied C. appreciated D. approved

Question 31: Kelly wanted to have a live band __________ at her wedding.

A. play B. been playing C. played D. to be played

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 32: - John: How about giving me a hand? - Tom: ____________________.

A. You're welcome B. Sure, I'd be glad to help C. No, not yet D. I promise

Question 33: - Liz: What do you think about the new project? - Jennifer: ___________________

A. Alright. Do you know how much it costs? B. Actually speaking, I myself don't like it.

C. Welcome! It's very nice of you. D. Not at all. Don't mention it.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 34: In that organization, they put emphasis on mutual aid and cooperation

A. reward B. pressure C. work D. stress

Question 35: His new million-dollar luxury car is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth.

A. expensive B. large C. admirable D. showy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions

Question 36: Nothing could efface the people's memory of their former leader's cruelty although any years had elapsed.

A. broaden B. erase C. maintain D. prove

Question 37: The spy used a fictitious name while dealing with the enemy.

A. authentic B. foreign C. false D. funny

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair

of sentences in the following questions

Question 38: For fear of waking up the family, Trung tiptoed upstairs.

A. Trung tiptoed upstairs so as not to wake up the family.

B. The family feared when Trung tiptoed upstairs.

C. Trung tiptoed upstairs because he didn’t want to wake up the family.

D. Trung tiptoed upstairs lest the family should be woken up.

Question 39: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.

B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.

C. The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothering me a lot.

D. The student next to me kept chewing gum, bothered me a lot.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the

following questions

Question 40: A number of large insurance companies has their headquarters in the capital city.

A B C D

Question 41: Below are some pieces of advice that can help you reduce the feeling of pressing and creating a

A B C D

good impression on your interviewer.

Question 42: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to

A B C

alter their eating habits.

D

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 28/40

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 43 to 47

The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most

abundant particles sand, silt and clay are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term

used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls.

To measure soil texture, the sand, silt and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each

size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.

In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three

basic shapes; cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; thread, a pencil shape formed by

rolling soil between the palms; and ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the

thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they

can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand

test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened,

behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes

into which it can be molded.

Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built

with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size,

the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural

determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay

particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine

particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so

slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a

residue of clay, which can be weighed.

Question 43: It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect ___________.

A. the way the soil is extracted B. the results of squeezing the soil

C. the difficulty of forming different shapes D. the need to check more than one handful

Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it __________.

A. does not have a classifiable texture B. is not very heavy

C. does not have a durable shape D. may not hold its shape when molded

Question 45: The word “they” in the passage refers to ___________.

A. sieves B. clay particles C. larger particles D. categories

Question 46: During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they ___________.

A. stick to the sides of the water container B. dissolve quickly

C. separate into different sizes D. take some time to sink to the bottom

Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in

determining soil texture because ___________.

A. less training is required to use the sieve B. using the sieve takes less time

C. the sieve allows for a more exact measure D. the sieve can measure clay

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 48: They believe a single gunman carried out the attack.

A. It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman.

B. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman.

C. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack

D. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman

Question 49: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.

A. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.

B. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.

C. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.

D. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.

Question 50: "I'm sorry. I didn't do the homework." said the boy.

A. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.

B. The boy denied not doing the homework.

C. The boy refused to do the homework.

D. The boy admitted not doing the homework.

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 29/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 08

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. express B. exciting C. expensive D. exhibition

Question 2: A. production B. propaganda C. proceed D. promotion

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. comfortable B. excellent C. communicate D. confident

Question 4: A. geographical B. compulsory C. education D. economics

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 5 to 9

Southern Thailand was hit Thursday by the most severe haze from forest fires in Indonesia, forcing all schools

in a province to close and disrupting fights in a popular tourist area, officially said.

The haze that has shrouded parts of Malaysia and Singapore for nearly two months reached hazardous levels

in the southern Thai city of Songkhla, with the pollution index hitting a record-high reading of 365. A reading of

101-200 is unhealthy, 201-300 is very unhealthy and above 300 is hazardous.

"This is a crisis," said Halem Jemarican, head of the Southern Environment Office. He said the pollution index

in southern Thailand has never exceeded 300 before.

Halem said his office has worked with other authorities to have all schools in Songkhla province send students

home and all outdoor sports stadiums to close temporarily. Warnings have been issued to vulnerable people such

as children, the elderly and people with illnesses not to go out of their homes.

"The wind speed is very low this year in the south, causing haze to stay in our skies longer," Halem said by

telephone.

An airport official in Hat Yai, a popular tourist area, said three flights bound for Bangkok were delayed

Thursday morning because of the haze. A flight from Bangkok to Hat Yai was diverted to Surat Thani on

Wednesday evening. The official declined to be identified because of working rules.

Local media reported that cloud seeding has been discussed as a way to dispel the haze in southern Thailand,

which is hundreds of kilometers (miles) from the forest fires in Indonesia's Sumatra island.

Southern Thailand boasts tropical beaches popular among tourists in Surat Thani and Phuket, two of the seven

provinces suffering from the haze.

Question 5: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. The haze reached a hazardous level in the city of Songkhla.

B. The pollution index in southern Thailand used to exceed 300.

C. Seven provinces in Thailand suffered from the haze.

D. The local authorities warned the citizens against going out.

Question 6: The following actions are taken by the authorities in response to the haze EXCEPT __________.

A. sending students home B. issuing warnings

C. closing sports stadiums D. disrupting flights

Question 7: What is the event reported in the news?

A. The haze from Indonesia was the worst ever last year.

B. Southern Thailand was hit by the haze from Indonesia.

C. People suffered because of the haze from Indonesia.

D. The flights were disrupted by the haze on Thursday.

Question 8: The haze stayed longer in the southern Thailand because of __________.

A. the tropical weather in the area B. the high pollution index

C. the low speed of the wind D. the fine particles of dust in the air

Question 9: What is the main idea of paragraph 2?

A. Thailand's pollution index reads 201-300. B. People living in Songkhla do a lot of reading.

C. Thailand is the most polluted country in Asia. D. The haze reached a dangerous level.

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 30/40

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 10 to 17

Early peoples had no need of engineering works to supply their water. Hunters and nomads camped near

natural sources of fresh water, and populations were so sparse that pollution of the water supply was not a serious

problem. After community life developed and agricultural villages became urban centres, the problem of

supplying water became important for inhabitants of a city, as well as for irrigation of the farms surrounding the

city. Irrigation works were known in prehistoric times, and before 2000 BC the rulers of Babylonia and Egypt

constructed systems of dams and canals to impound the flood waters of the Euphrates and Nile rivers, controlling

floods and providing irrigation water throughout the dry season. Such irrigation canals also supplied water for

domestic purposes. The first people to consider the sanitation of their water supply were the ancient Romans,

who constructed a vast system of aqueducts to bring the clean waters of the Apennine Mountains into the city and

built basins and filters along these mains to ensure the clarity of the water. The construction of such extensive

water-supply systems declined when the Roman Empire disintegrated, and for several centuries local springs and

wells formed the main source of domestic and industrial water.The invention of the force pump in England in the

middle of the 16

th

century greatly extended the possibilities of development of water-supply systems. In London,

the first pumping waterworks was completed in 1562; it pumped river water to a reservoir about 37m above the

level of the River Thames and from the reservoir the water was distributed by gravity, through lead pipes, to

buildings in the vicinity.

Increased per-capita demand has coincided with water shortages in many countries. Southeast England, for

example, receives only 14 percent of Britain's rainfall, has 30 per cent of its population, and has experienced

declining winter rainfall since the 1980s.

In recent years a great deal of interest has been shown in the conversion of seawater to fresh water to provide

drinking water for very dry areas, such as the Middle East. Several different processes, including distillation,

electrodialysis, reverse osmosis, and direct-freeze evaporation, have been developed for this purpose. Some of

these processes have been used in large facilities in the United States. Although these processes are successful,

the cost of treating seawater is much higher than that for treating fresh water.

Question 10: Clean water supply was first taken into consideration by ____________.

A. the ancient Romans B. the Egyptians C. the English people D. the US people

Question 11: The word "mains" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ____________.

A. lands B. pipes C. rivers D. areas

Question 12: Which of the following is NOT true about London’s water supply in the middle of the 16

th

century?

A. Water was pumped from the River Thames. B. Water ran from the reservoir to buildings.

C. Water was stored in a reservoir. D. Water was conducted through canals.

Question 13: Early peoples didn't need water supply engineering works because ___________.

A. they had good ways to irrigate their farms

B. their community life had already developed

C. there was almost no dry season in prehistoric times

D. natural sources of fresh water nearby were always available

Question 14: One of the causes of water shortages in South-east England is ___________.

A. increased demand B. water-supply system decline

C. water pollution D. water evaporation

Question 15: For several centuries after the disintegration of the Roman Empire, the main source of water

supply was from ___________.

A. springs and wells B. water pipes C. systems of aqueducts D. dams and canals

Question 16: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a process of conversing seawater to freshwater?

A. Water evaporation B. Steaming and cooling C. Dissolving chemicals D. Purification method

Question 17: The word "vicinity" in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.

A. The region where industry developed B. The neighborhood around a reservoir

C. The areas along the River Thames D. The cities in South- East England

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair

of sentences in the following questions

Question 18: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.

A. If only he had been able to finish his book.

B. If it weren't for his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 31/40

C. Without his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book.

D. But for his wife's help, he couldn't finish his book.

Question 19: Mary wears high heels to look taller.

A. So that to look taller, Mary wears high heels. B. Mary buys high heels to look taller.

C. Mary wants high heels to make her taller. D. In order to look taller, Mary wears high heels.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 20: - Linda: What kinds of music do you like, Mary? - Mary: _______________

A. You really guess so B. Well, I guess I’m really into jazz

C. Hmm, no, I don't really like Westerns D. Concert

Question 21: - Peter: Could you fill it up, please? - Ivan: ________________

A. Where? Of course not. B. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application.

C. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well? D. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 22: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.

A. mandatory B. benifical C. superior D. constructive

Question 23: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water.

A. bone B. image C. imagination D. leash

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions

Question 24: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.

A. approximately B. specifically C. comparatively D. nearly

Question 25: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and fanners are having trouble.

A. abundant B. dominant C. adequate D. unsatisfactory

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the

following questions

Question 26: Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region.

A B C D

Question 27: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area.

A B C D

Question 28: Geothermal energy is energy to obtain by using heat from the Earth's interior.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 29 to 33

American folk music originated with (29)_________ people at a time when the rural population was isolated

and music was not (30)_________ spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (31)_________ by oral

traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early American folk

songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant

part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer

Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (32)_________ soon became

part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies

and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer - composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob

Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban folk music. Many of these songs deal (33)_________

important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam.

Question 29: A. popular B. common C. typical D. ordinary

Question 30: A. until B. even C. yet D. still

Question 31: A. transferred B. transformed C. transmitted D. transited

Question 32: A. that B. who C. which D. this

Question 33: A. at B. in C. with D. by Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 32/40

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 34: People have used coal and oil to __________ electricity for a long time.

A. bred B. raise C. cultivate D. generate

Question 35: My sister is a woman of ___________ age.

A. marriage B. married C. marrying D. marriageable

Question 36: This is the latest news from earthquake site. Two- thirds of the city __________ in a fire.

A. has been destroyed B. were destroyed C. was destroyed D. have been destroyed

Question 37: - "Lovely weather, isn't it?" - "Yes, I hope tomorrow will be ____________ nice day."

A. the other B. some C. another D. some other

Question 38: In the early years of the 20th century, several rebellions __________ in the northern parts of the

country.

A. turned out B. rose up C. broke out D. came up

Question 39: That carcinogenic substances __________ in many common household items is well-known.

A. are containing B. are contained C. contained D. containing

Question 40: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are ___________.

A. out of work B. out of stock C. out of practice D. out of reach

Question 41: ____________ I've told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn't listen. Just let him

face the music now!

A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. Or a time

Question 42: There are many ___________ in our library.

A. interesting American old history books B. old American interesting history books.

C. interesting old American history books D. American interesting old history books

Question 43: The festival has many attractions. It will include contemporary orchestra music and an opera.

__________, there will be poetry readings and theatrical presentations.

A. Furthermore B. Otherwise C. On the other hand D. Nevertheless

Question 44: She looked ___________ to see who was going __________ her .

A. up / off B. for / with C. at / to D. round / after

Question 45: Elderly people, ___________ , require constant attention.

A. a large number's depending on government aid

B. and many of them depend on the government to finance them

C. who are dependent many of them on the financing from the government

D. many of whom are financially dependent on the government

Question 46: The instructor blew his whistle and __________.

A. off the runners were running B. off were running the runners

C. the runners runs off D. off ran the runners

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following

questions

Question 48: In Nepal, literacy increased by approximately 40 percent from the early 1950s to the end of the

century.

A. 40 percent of the people of Nepal became literate during the latter half of the 20

th

century.

B. At the end of the 20

th

century, about 40 percent of the Nepalese were literate, much higher than in the early 1950s.

C. About 40 percent more of the Nepalese population became literate during the second half of the 20

th

century.

D. From the middle to the end of 20

th

century, only about 40 percent of Nepalese people could read and write.

Question 49: "Yes, there's one left on the one that leaves in two hours."

A. Are there any seats on the next flight to Paris? B. Are you going to London for a holiday or on business?

C. Why are you in such a rush to leave the country? D. Will you hold that reservation for me?

Question 50: It is regretful that they destroyed the biggest buddhist statue.

A. They mustn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue.

B. They shouldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue.

C. They couldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue.

D. They wouldn't have destroyed the biggest buddhist statue. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 33/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 09

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. university B. application C. technology D. entertainment

Question 2: A. particular B. significant C. collaborate D. satisfaction

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. released B. ceased C. pleased D. increased

Question 4: A. machine B. chute C. chore D. champagne

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following

questions

Question 5: Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region.

A B C D

Question 6: The bus was plenty of people who had spent many a happy hour in the stores doing their Christmas shopping.

A B C D

Question 7: When you talk to the old man, please remember to speak out as he's hard of hearing.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 8 to 12

The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old. It is difficult for us to think about such an enormous length of time

because it has little meaning for us. We can, however, simplify an idea to make it more understandable. We can

compare the planet Earth to a person of forty-six years of age. Nothing is known about the first seven years of

this person's life. Very little information exists about the middle period either. It was only at the age of forty-two

that the Earth began to flower. Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until one year ago. When the planet

was forty-five, mammals only arrived eight months ago. In the middle of last week, man-like apes became ape-

like men and began to communicate with each other. Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth. Modern man

has only been around for four hours. During the last hour man discovered agriculture. The Industrial revolution

and the rise of large cities began just sixty seconds ago.

During that short time, modern man has made a rubbish of the Earth. In one minute, he has increased his

numbers to terrible proportions and has caused the death of hundreds of species of animals. He has robbed and

destroyed the planet in his search for fuels. Now he stands, like a violent spoilt child delighted at the speed of his

rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all the life which exists in the solar's

system.

Question 8: It would appear that the main danger ahead is that __________.

A. there will be a population explosion B. more species of animal may die out

C. man will destroy everything on Earth D. man will use up all the fuels

Question 9: The author is mainly interested in __________.

A. what has happened since the Industrial Revolution B. the effects of farming

C. the period before the last Ice Age D. the time when man first evolved from apes

Question 10: The author's general view of man seems to be that __________.

A. he has learned a lot from past mistakes B. he has no right to be so destructive

C. he will be able to control the environment D. he has been the most successful animal

Question 11: The passage tells us that ___________.

A. a great deal is known about how the Earth were created

B. scientists are well-informed about the middle part of the Earth's life.

C. life on Earth began relatively recently

D. more is known about the first part of the Earth's life than the middle part.

Question 12: We are informed by the author that ___________. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 34/40

A. there were more than forty-five kinds of great reptiles

B. ape-like men appeared before the last Ice Age

C. mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time

D. the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 13: "Shall I make you a coffee?" the girl said to the lady.

A. The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady. B. The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady.

C. The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady. D. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady.

Question 14: He was so rude to them last night and now he feels regretful.

A. He wishes he wasn't so rude to them last night. B. He wishes he hadn't been so rude to them last night.

C. He regrets having so rude to them last night. D. He regrets being so rude to them last night.

Question 15: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.

A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous. B. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous.

C. David drove so fast and was very dangerous. D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 16: - Peter: Could you fill it up, please? - Ivan: ________________

A. Where? Of course not. B. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you.

C. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well? D. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application.

Question 17: Clement: _______________ - Dick: Is there something on your mind?

A. I feel like going out for a while. B. I've been feeling a bit anxious lately.

C. I've been out strolling all day. D. Why don't you think more rationally?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 18: The discovery of oil brought __________ wealth to the country.

A. uncalculated B. untold C. unannounced D. unsaid

Question 19: John paid $2 for his meal, _________ he had thought it would cost.

A. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as

Question 20: __________ had booked in advance were allowed in.

A. Only who B. Only those who C. Only who were those D. Only were those who

Question 21: I got impatient waiting for my turn to ___________.

A. set out B. work out C. go out D. come out

Question 22: Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately, I __________ just in time.

A. managed to stop B. could stop C. must be able to stop D. could have stopped

Question 23: The blue curtains began to _________ after they had been hanging in the sun for two months.

A. fade B. die C. dissolve D. melt

Question 24: Politicians often promise to solve all a country's problems ___________.

A. thick and fast B. on the whole C. of set purpose D. at a stroke

Question 25: ___________ we refused to cooperate further.

A. Such was our annoyance that B. Such our annoyance was that

C. So much our annoyance was that D. Our annoyance was so that

Question 26: He looked at her and his hand pulled out a _________ of money from his pocket to give her some.

A. wad B. pile C. sheet D. piece

Question 27: It's ridiculous for him __________ in central Athens at his age.

A. to be driven B. to be driving C. to have driven D. driving

Question 28: There's no point _________ here. The man you want to talk to won't be back at least two days.

A. hanging out B. catching up with C. counting on D. relying on

Question 29: He's always trying __________ me.

A. to avoid to meet B. avoiding meeting C. to avoid meeting D. avoiding to meet

Question 30: This memorandum will have to be duplicated. Could you possibly __________ a hundred copies

for me, Miss Jones? Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 35/40

A. run off B. run over C. run up D. run along

Question 31: The house we have rented is __________. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.

A. unrestored B. undecorated C. unrepaired D. unfurnished

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 32 to 39

Native Americans probably arrived from Asia in successive waves over several millennia, crossing a plain

hundreds of miles wide that now lies inundated by 160 feet of water released by melting glaciers. For several

periods of time, the first beginning around 60,000 BC. and the last ending around 7,000 BC., this land bridge was

open. The first people travelled in the dusty trails of the animals they hunted. They brought with them not only

their families, weapons, and tools but also a broad metaphysical understanding, sprung from dreams and visions

and articulated in myth and song, which complemented their scientific and historical knowledge of the lives of

animals and people. All this they shaped in a variety of languages, bringing into being oral literatures of power

and beauty.

Contemporary readers, forgetting the origins of western epic, lyric, and dramatic forms, are easily disposed to

think of “literature” only as something written. But on reflection it becomes clear that the more critically useful

as well as the more frequently employed sense of the term concerns the artfulness of the verbal creation, not its

mode of presentation. Ultimately, literature is aesthetically valued, regardless of language, culture, or mode of

presentation, because some significant verbal achievement results from the struggle in words between tradition

and talent. Verbal art has the ability to shape out a compelling inner vision in some skillfully crafted public

verbal form.

Of course, the differences between the written and oral modes of expression are not without consequences for

an understanding of Native American literature. The essential difference is that a speech event is an evolving

communication, an “emergent form”, the shape, functions, and aesthetic values of which become more clearly

realized over the course of the performance. In performing verbal art, the performer assumes responsibility for

the manners as well as the content of the performance, while the audience assumes the responsibility for

evaluating the performer’s competence in both areas. It is this intense mutual engagement that elicits the display

of skill and shapes the emerging performance. Where written literature provides us with a tradition of texts, oral

literature offers a tradition of performances.

Question 32: According to the passage, why did the first people who came to North America leave their homeland?

A. They were looking for food. B. They were seeking freedom.

C. They were following instructions given in a dream. D. They were hoping to find a better climate.

Question 33: The phrase "are easily disposed" is closest in meaning to __________.

A. often fail B. readily encourage others C. demonstrate reluctance D. have a tendency

Question 34: The word "Ultimately" is closet in meaning to ___________.

A. normally B. whenever possible C. frequently D. in the end

Question 35: The word "compelling" is closet in meaning to ___________.

A. competing B. forceful C. intricate D. joyous

Question 36: What is the main point of the second paragraph?

A. Native Americans have a strong oral tradition in art.

B. Public performance is essential to verbal art.

C. Oral narratives are a valid form of literature.

D. The production of literature provides employment for many artists.

Question 37: According to the passage, what responsibility does the audience of a verbal art performance have?

A. They judge the quality of the content and presentation.

B. They participate in the performance by chanting responses.

C. They determine the length of the performance by requesting a continuation.

D. They provide financial support for performances.

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true of the Native American literature discussed in the passage?

A. It has a set form B. It expresses an inner vision.

C. It has ancient origins D. It involves acting

Question 39: What can be inferred from the passage about the difference between written and oral literature?

A. Written literature is not as highly respected as oral literature is. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 36/40

B. Written literature reflects social values better than oral literature does.

C. Written literature involves less interaction between audience and creator during the creative progress than

oral literature does.

D. Written literature usually is not based on historical events, whereas oral literature is.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 40 to 44

The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been blamed for broken relationships,

job (40)_________, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction

Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could cause serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have

been (41)__________ to offer sufferers help and support.

IAS is similar to other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: (42)_________ have dreams about

Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they lie to their partners about how much time they spend

online; they wish they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that many users spend up to

40 hours a week on the Internet; (43)_________ they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were made to stop

using it.

Almost anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on computer games

and who (44)_________ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet. Surprisingly, however, psychologists

say that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer before.

Question 40: A. promotions B. employments C. opportunities D. losses

Question 41: A. stand up B. set up C. take up D. put up

Question 42: A. smokers B. drinkers C. gamblers D. addicts

Question 43: A. despite B. unless C. although D. without

Question 44: A. find B. have C. feel D. say

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of

sentences in the following questions

Question 45: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want to increase their sales.

A. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars on advertising.

B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their sales.

C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their sales.

D. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their sales.

Question 46: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days.

B. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days.

C. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated by the police for days.

D. He has been investigated by the police for days, suspected to steal credit cards.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 47: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.

A. pay all your attention to what you are doing B. make her comply with your order

C. upset her in what she is doing D. get involved in what she is doing

Question 48: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?

A. decrease B. destroy C. keep D. upgrade

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions

Question 49: He is extremely smart. He's head and shoulders above anyone else in the class.

A. better than B. inferior to C. more clever than D. superior to

Question 50: Children from affluent families find it too difficult to adapt to university dormitory life.

A. wealthy B. well-off C. privileged D. impoverished Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 37/40

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A

-------------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 10

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in

pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. prune B. brunette C. fortune D. tune

Question 2: A. trout B. fought C. found D. scout

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the

primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. fought B. fundamental C. cauliflower D. fluorescence

Question 4: A. medieval B. mechanic C. melancholy D. metallic

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 5: We should participate in the movements __________ the natural environment.

A. organizing to conserve B. organized to conserve C. organized conserving D. which organized to conserve

Question 6: Since he failed his exam, he had to _________ for it again.

A. pass B. take C. sit D. make

Question 7: __________ warfare duties primarily to males' was imperative when combat was hand-to-hand.

A. Assigned B. They who assigned C. That they were assigning D. Assigning

Question 8: Are you taking _________ this semester?

A. house economics B. home economic C. house economic D. home economics

Question 9: It's important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems and

__________ some solutions to those in Vietnam.

A. propose B. advise C. think D. expect

Question 10: Unless you __________ well-trained, you __________ to the company.

A. aren't / will never admit B. are / will never admit

C. aren't / will never be admitted D. are / will never be admitted

Question 11: Failing to submit the proposal on time was _________ for Tom.

A. a real kick in the pants B. a nail in the coffin C. an open and shut case D. a shot in the dark

Question 12: He does not __________ his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them.

A. get on with B. put up with C. go on with D. take to

Question 13: Many applicants find a job interview __________ if they are not well-prepared for it.

A. impressive B. stressful C. threatening D. time-consuming

Question 14: The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _________ it was made in the 1990s.

A. or B. because C. although D. however

Question 15: Jane only makes cakes with the __________ butter.

A. Danish best unsalted B. best unsalted Danish C. unsalted best Danish D. best Danish unsalted

Question 16: Tim's encouraging words gave me _________ to undertake the task once again.

A. a target B. a point C. a resolution D. an incentive

Question 17: Everyone is hoping and praying that _________ peace will eventually come to the area.

A. durable B. irrevocable C. lasting D. ongoing

Question 18: The ________ are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal.

A. prospects B. odds C. chances D. bets

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges

Question 19: - A: Thank you. I couldn't have finished my presentation without your help. - B: ______________.

A. Forget about it. I didn't mean so B. I highly appreciate what you did

C. It doesn't matter anyway D. Never mind

Question 20: - Laura: I have got a couple of questions I would like to ask you. - Maria: ___________

A. Right, fine away. B. Of course not, it's not costly.

C. What's up? D. Not at all. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 38/40

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the

following questions

Question 21: Some bacteria are extremely harmful, but others are regular used in producing foods.

A B C D

Question 22: Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.

A B C D

Question 23: When GCSEs are taken in secondary school, they can often combined with other qualifications or diplomas.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 24 to 28

LIVING A BALANCED LIFESTYLE

When we talk about living a healthy life, there is a famous old saying, "You are what you eat". In fact, it is not

just what people eat, but their whole lifestyle, which is important. The best way to stay healthy is to live a

balanced lifestyle. Are you living a balanced lifestyle both physically and mentally?

Physical Balance

The human body needs physical exercise at least once a day. In today's world, many working people spend

most of their day sitting at a desk. To add more exercise to your daily life, try to stop what you are doing about

once an hour and stretch or take a short walk. After work, take a brisk walk or go to the gym. Your body will

thank you for it.

For good health, nutritionists say we should eat at least four servings of raw food a day. By eating many

colorful fruits and vegetables, you can be sure you are getting the correct nutrients. Have a red apple with your

breakfast, a green salad at lunch, some carrots for your afternoon snack, and grapes for dessert instead of cake or

cookies. Of course, for a healthy balance, your body also needs other foods.

Mental Balance

Mentally balanced people are usually emotionally balanced. They are generally happy with the things they

have. They do not need to have more and more things. A mentally balanced person also feels good about who

they are. They don't worry about the past, and generally have good relationships with the people around them.

That doesn't mean that mentally healthy people never have negative feelings, but they don't let these types of

feelings control them or their behavior. It's normal for people to feel their emotions, life always has its challenges

and tragedies. But mentally healthy people face those challenges and resolve them quickly instead of allowing

them to take control of their lives. By taking a little time each day to eat well, exercise, and clear your mind,

anyone can live a more balanced and healthier lifestyle.

Question 24: According to the article, people need to exercise _________.

A. once a day B. in the evenings after work

C. for one hour at a time D. once an hour

Question 25: The following statements are recommended as ways to get physical exercise EXCEPT _________.

A. going to a gym B. playing sports C. taking a walk D. stretching

Question 26: According to the article, to have a balanced lifestyle, people need to __________.

A. let their feelings control their behavior B. work less and exercise more

C. eat cookies and cake only once a week D. take care of both their physical and mental health

Question 27: Which statement is true, according to the article?

A. Mentally healthy people also face challenges and tragedies.

B. A healthy, balanced lifestyle is difficult for most people.

C. Fruits and vegetables should only be eaten raw.

D. People should exercise at least four times a day.

Question 28: The author wrote this article mostly to ___________.

A. show that mental health is more important than physical health

B. tell people which foods are and are not healthy

C. tell people about the key parts of a balanced lifestyle

D. make sure everyone gets enough exercise in their lives

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the

questions, from 29 to 36 Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 39/40

What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern

portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin is surrounded on the west by

the Sierra Nevada and on the east by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in

the Great Basin are from the west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the

Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the

western slopes of the mountains. That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water

falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is, therefore,

an environment in which organism battle for survival. Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke

out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pinion pines and junipers struggle to hold their own.

But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with

water. Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes. The two

largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Britain were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is

all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former.

There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated

in these basins. The rise and fall of the lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice

sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times. Climatic

changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid-latitude deserts worldwide,

including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this

moisture.

Question 29: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin?

A. The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.

B. The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.

C. The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province.

D. The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.

Question 30: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack?

A. Dry air B. Access to the ocean C. Snow D. Winds from the west

Question 31: The word "prevailing" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. most frequent B. most dangerous C. occasional D. gentle

Question 32: It can be inferred that the climate in the Great Basin is dry because _________.

A. the winds are not strong enough to carry moisture B. the weather patterns are so turbulent

C. the altitude prevents precipitation D. precipitation falls in the nearby mountains

Question 33: Why does the author mention Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley in the second paragraph?

A. To give examples of depressions that once contained water

B. To compare the characteristics of the valleys with the characteristics of the lakes

C. To explain what the Great Britain is like today

D. To explain their geographical formation

Question 34: The word "the former" in paragraph 2 refer to _________.

A. Lake Bonneville B. The Great Salt Lake C. Pyramid Lake D. Lake Lahontan

Question 35: The word "accumulated" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. collected B. evaporated C. dried D. flooded

Question 36: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about _________.

A. broken valley B. warmer climates C. desert formation D. wetter weather

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that

best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 37 to 41

AFTERNOON TEA

In far too many places in England today, the agreeable habit of taking afternoon tea has vanished. "Such a

shocking waste of time," says one. "Quite unnecessary, if one has had lunch or (37)________ to eat in the

evening," says another.

All very true, (38)________ but what a lot of innocent pleasure these strong-minded people are missing! The

very ritual of tea-making, warming the pot, making sure that the water is just boiling, inhaling the fragrant steam,

arranging the tea-cosy to fit snugly around the container, all the preliminaries (39)________ up to the exquisite

pleasure of sipping the brew from thin porcelain, and helping oneself to hot buttered scones and strawberry jam, a

slice of feather-light sponge cake or home-made shortbread. Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien, : 0986621363 Friday, April 24, 2020

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12 Page 40/40

Taking tea is a highly civilized pastime, and fortunately is still in favour in Thrush Green, where the

inhabitants have got it down to a (40)________ art. It is common (41)________ in that pleasant village to invite

friends to tea rather than lunch or dinner.

Question 37: A. minds B. proposes C. views D. designs

Question 38: A. no matter B. no way C. no doubt D. no wonder

Question 39: A. come B. lead C. draw D. run

Question 40: A. rare B. pure C. fine D. sheer

Question 41: A. practice B. procedure C. habit D. custom

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of

sentences in the following questions

Question 42: She could dress herself when she was three. She remembers this.

A. She remembers having dressed herself when she was three.

B. She remembers having herself dressed when she was three.

C. She remembers being able to dress herself when she was three.

D. She remembers to dress for herself at three.

Question 43: We had prepared everything carefully for the party. Few guests came.

A. However few guests came, we had prepared everything for the party carefully.

B. Despite our careful preparation for the party, few guests came.

C. Although everything for party prepared carefully, few guests came.

D. In spite of having prepared everything for the party carefully, few guests came.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following

questions

Question 44: Don't disturb me unless it is something urgent.

A. I will only bother you if there is some sort of emergency.

B. Unless something terrible happens, please leave me alone.

C. You can only interrupt me if it is some sort of emergency.

D. When you need something fast, you can call on me.

Question 45: Much to our astonishment, he soon proved himself to be a very talented organiser.

A. The speed with which he developed his administrative potential didn't surprise us all.

B. His organising abilities were surprisingly enough not recognised until too late.

C. It wasn't long before his administrative gifts became apparent, which surprised us greatly.

D. The astonishing thing was that such a talented man should take on the organisation.

Question 46: Everyone at the factory was worried about the possibility of losing their job.

A. The chance that they might lose their jobs troubled all those at the factory.

B. All those at the factory wondered how they might be able to keep their jobs.

C. All of the factory employees realized that they would soon lose their jobs.

D. Few of those working at the factory felt that their jobs were secure.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions

Question 47: Smoking is a causative factor in the development of several serious diseases, including lung cancer.

A. source B. reason C. origin D. cause

Question 48: The issue of pay rise will loom large at the year-end conference.

A. be discussed B. become important C. be raised suddenly D. cause worry

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)

in each of the following questions

Question 49: Even though they don't agree with what's happening, they're too apathetic to protest.

A. half-hearted B. uninterested C. moved D. unconcerned

Question 50: Public opinion is currently running against the banking industry.

A. standing up for B. kicking out C. poking fun at D. looking up to